2022

61. Which one of the following is the full form of X-BIS ?

Which one of the following is the full form of X-BIS ?

[amp_mcq option1=”X-ray Baggage Inspection System” option2=”X-ray Baggage Imaging System” option3=”X-ray Based Imaging System” option4=”X-ray Baggage Identifying System” correct=”option1″]

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2022
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The correct full form of X-BIS is X-ray Baggage Inspection System.
X-BIS refers to the technology used for scanning luggage and bags using X-rays, commonly employed at airports, railway stations, and other security checkpoints for detecting prohibited items.
These systems are a standard part of security infrastructure for screening carried items without opening them. They produce images that security personnel interpret to identify potentially dangerous or forbidden objects inside the baggage.

62. In which of the following years were amendments in the CISF Act brough

In which of the following years were amendments in the CISF Act brought in ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1983, 1989, 1999 and 2011″ option2=”1983, 1991, 2001 and 2009″ option3=”1983, 1989, 1999 and 2009″ option4=”1983, 1989, 2001 and 2011″ correct=”option3″]

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The correct answer is C) 1983, 1989, 1999 and 2009. These are significant years when the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968, underwent amendments that broadened its scope and powers, particularly allowing deployment in joint venture and private sector undertakings (1999) and further refining its role and structure (1983, 1989, 2009).
– The CISF Act, 1968, established the force.
– Key amendments were made in 1983 (e.g., relating to members’ liability), 1989 (e.g., concerning dependents’ benefits), 1999 (allowing deployment in private/joint venture sectors on cost reimbursement basis), and 2009 (further expanding scope and powers).
– Another significant amendment occurred in 2001, making CISF mandatory for airport security.
The amendments reflect the evolving security landscape in India and the expanding role of CISF from primarily protecting Public Sector Undertakings to becoming a multi-faceted security agency involved in airport security, VIP security, consultancy, and security for private sector establishments critical to the economy. While the 2001 amendment was also very important, Option C lists a set of years that are all correct amendment years, whereas Option D contains a likely incorrect year (2011).

63. Random frisking means frisking of :

Random frisking means frisking of :

[amp_mcq option1=”persons who are well-built.” option2=”persons who are drunk.” option3=”at least every fifth person.” option4=”few male persons only.” correct=”option3″]

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The correct answer is C) at least every fifth person. In a security context, ‘random frisking’ typically implies checking a sample of people passing through, rather than checking everyone (100% frisking) or checking only those who appear suspicious based on subjective criteria. While “every fifth person” is systematic rather than purely random, it represents a policy of frisking a portion of the population selected by a rule, which is a common method implemented under the umbrella term “random checks” in security to deter and detect threats without profiling or causing excessive delays. Options A, B, and D describe selection based on personal attributes, which is not random frisking.
– Random frisking in security is a technique used for deterrence and detection. It involves selecting individuals from a flow of people for searching based on a method that is unpredictable to the individual being frisked.
– This unpredictability can be achieved through various means, including truly random selection mechanisms or systematic sampling like checking every Nth person, provided the pattern isn’t easily predictable or is varied.
– The key is that the selection is not based on subjective criteria like appearance, behaviour (unless specific alert criteria are met, which would then fall under targeted search), or any form of discrimination.
The actual method for implementing random frisking varies across security agencies and locations. While a mathematically true random selection is ideal, practical considerations often lead to systematic sampling methods (like “every fifth person” or choosing based on a random number generator at intervals) or simply unpredictable selection by the security personnel based on operational needs, as long as it avoids discriminatory practices.

64. During the outbreak of fire in a unit, which one of the following shou

During the outbreak of fire in a unit, which one of the following should not be done ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Stop the fire from spreading” option2=”Reach the spot as early as possible with proper equipment and sufficient manpower” option3=”Inform the local police and wait till the police arrives” option4=”Rescue of the persons caught in the fire” correct=”option3″]

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The correct answer is C) Inform the local police and wait till the police arrives. While informing the local police and fire services is crucial during a fire outbreak, *waiting* for the police to arrive before taking action is incorrect and dangerous. Immediate actions like fire fighting, rescuing people, and preventing spread are paramount.
– Emergency procedures during a fire emphasize immediate response: raising the alarm, attempting to extinguish small fires if safe, evacuating people, and informing relevant authorities (fire services and police).
– Delaying action while waiting for authorities can lead to the fire escalating, causing more damage and endangering lives.
– Rescue of trapped persons and preventing the fire from spreading are critical immediate actions.
Fire fighting strategies follow a sequence often summarized as “RACE” or “PASS” (for using an extinguisher) and general emergency response protocols which prioritize life safety, then incident stabilization, and finally property conservation. The police’s role in a fire incident typically involves crowd control, investigation (arson, cause), and supporting other emergency services, but they are not the primary responders for fire suppression or immediate rescue in most cases; fire services are.

65. Which one of the following is the highest category Protectee ?

Which one of the following is the highest category Protectee ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Z category protectee” option2=”Z+ category protectee” option3=”SPG protectee” option4=”CISF protectee” correct=”option3″]

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The correct answer is C) SPG protectee. Among the options provided, the SPG (Special Protection Group) provides the highest level of security cover in India.
– Security cover categories in India are generally graded as SPG, Z+, Z, Y, and X, based on the threat perception to the individual.
– The SPG is a specialized force solely dedicated to providing security to the Prime Minister of India and their immediate family, and sometimes to former Prime Ministers and their families for a specified period. This is considered the most elite and highest tier of protection.
– Z+ category is the highest level of security provided by other central armed police forces like NSG, CRPF, ITBP, or state police, covering a larger number of high-risk individuals.
The threat perception for individuals is periodically reviewed by the central and state security agencies, based on which the security category is determined. CISF also provides security cover to protectees, but typically for categories like Z or Y, or as part of the security detail for Z+ protectees, but not the dedicated, highest-level SPG cover.

66. As per the CISF Act, 1968, which of the following is not correct as fa

As per the CISF Act, 1968, which of the following is not correct as far as the procedure to be followed after arrest by CISF is concerned ?

[amp_mcq option1=”To hand over the arrested person to the nearest police station” option2=”To hand over the arrested person to the management of the undertaking” option3=”To hand over the arrested person to a police officer” option4=”To prepare a report of the circumstances occasioning the arrest” correct=”option2″]

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The correct answer is B) To hand over the arrested person to the management of the undertaking. As per the CISF Act, 1968 and general legal procedures, CISF personnel, after making an arrest, must hand over the arrested person to the nearest police station or a police officer, not to the management of the undertaking they are protecting, as the management does not have the legal authority to handle arrested persons in accordance with criminal procedure law.
– Section 11 of the CISF Act, 1968 deals with the power to arrest without warrant.
– Section 12 mandates that any CISF officer making an arrest without a warrant shall without unnecessary delay make over the person so arrested to a police officer and failing such police officer, take such person to the nearest police station.
– Preparing a report detailing the circumstances of the arrest is also a necessary procedural step.
The CISF personnel derive their power of arrest from the CISF Act, read with the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC). Once an arrest is made, the due process involves handing the individual over to the appropriate law enforcement authority (the Police) for formal registration of case, investigation, and presentation before a magistrate, ensuring adherence to fundamental rights and legal procedures.

67. Which of the following is/are the basic function(s) of a CCTV system ?

Which of the following is/are the basic function(s) of a CCTV system ?

  • 1. To disallow unauthorised persons to enter into any building in the premises
  • 2. To allow a person to observe a scene without being present at the scene
  • 3. To allow an activity to be recorded for future viewing

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1, 2 and 3″ option2=”2 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”2 and 3 only” correct=”option4″]

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The correct answer is D) 2 and 3 only. The basic functions of a CCTV system are to allow remote observation of a scene and to record activities for later review.
– Statement 1 is incorrect because a CCTV system is a surveillance tool; it monitors and records but does not physically prevent unauthorized entry. Access control systems (like locks, turnstiles, card readers) perform the function of disallowing entry.
– Statement 2 is correct. The primary purpose of CCTV is to transmit video from cameras at one location to monitors at another, allowing personnel to observe a scene remotely.
– Statement 3 is correct. Recording video footage is a standard and essential function of modern CCTV systems, allowing for investigation of incidents, monitoring trends, and evidence collection.
CCTV (Closed-Circuit Television) systems are widely used for security, surveillance, and monitoring in various environments like public places, buildings, traffic management, etc. While CCTV is often part of a larger security system that might include access control or alarms, its fundamental functions are remote viewing and recording.

68. The fee received by CISF for Technical Services to industrial establis

The fee received by CISF for Technical Services to industrial establishments is credited to :

[amp_mcq option1=”CISF Welfare Fund.” option2=”CISF Consultancy Fund.” option3=”Consolidated Fund of India.” option4=”Contingency Fund of India.” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
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The correct answer is B) CISF Consultancy Fund. Fees received by CISF for providing technical services to industrial establishments are specifically credited to a dedicated fund or account related to these consultancy/technical services. While government revenues generally go to the Consolidated Fund of India, fees from specific services like consultancy are often channelled into dedicated funds to manage the related activities and resources.
– The CISF Act and Rules allow the force to provide consultancy services on security matters to industrial establishments, including those in the private sector.
– Revenue generated from these consultancy services is managed separately from the main budget allocated to CISF for its primary duties.
– A ‘Consultancy Fund’ or similar dedicated account ensures that the income generated can be utilized for purposes related to the consultancy wing, training, or specific needs arising from providing these services.
The provision for CISF to offer consultancy and security services beyond public sector undertakings was introduced through amendments to the CISF Act. This allows CISF to leverage its expertise and generate revenue, contributing to its resources and enabling deployment in a wider range of establishments based on security requirements.

69. Metal detector is meant to detect the presence of which of the followi

Metal detector is meant to detect the presence of which of the following in the search object ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Ferrous metal only” option2=”Ferrous and plastic objects only” option3=”Ferrous and non-ferrous objects only” option4=”Ferrous, non-ferrous and plastic objects” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
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The correct answer is C) Ferrous and non-ferrous objects only. Standard metal detectors operate by detecting disruptions in an electromagnetic field caused by conductive materials, which include both ferrous metals (containing iron) and non-ferrous metals (like aluminum, copper, gold, silver).
– Metal detectors work on the principle of electromagnetism. They emit an electromagnetic field and detect the presence of metal objects by measuring the secondary magnetic field induced in the object or the change in the primary field.
– Ferrous metals are magnetic (e.g., iron, steel), while non-ferrous metals are not magnetic but are still conductive (e.g., aluminum, copper, brass, gold). Both types interact with the electromagnetic field of a metal detector.
– Plastic is not a conductive material and therefore does not interfere with the electromagnetic field in a way that a standard metal detector can detect.
While standard walk-through and hand-held metal detectors detect metals, other security screening technologies exist to detect non-metallic objects like plastics, ceramics, liquids, or explosives, such as X-ray scanners, body scanners (using millimetre wave or backscatter technology), and trace detection portals.

70. Which one of the following breeds of dogs is not suitable as sniffer d

Which one of the following breeds of dogs is not suitable as sniffer dogs in aviation security ?

[amp_mcq option1=”German Shepherd” option2=”Cocker Spaniel” option3=”Labrador” option4=”Pomeranian” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
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The correct answer is D) Pomeranian. Pomeranians are small breed companion dogs and are not typically used for demanding detection roles like sniffer dogs in aviation security due to their size, temperament, and working drive compared to breeds specifically bred for scent work.
– Suitable sniffer dogs for security work, including aviation security, are chosen based on their strong sense of smell, trainability, temperament (calm, focused, non-aggressive), endurance, and drive to work.
– Breeds like German Shepherds, Labradors, Beagles, and Springer Spaniels (similar to Cocker Spaniels) are commonly used as detection dogs for explosives, narcotics, and other contraband due to these characteristics.
Different dog breeds are utilized for different types of detection work depending on the environment and target substance. While many breeds have a good sense of smell, successful sniffer dogs require specific physical and behavioral traits that allow them to work effectively in busy, noisy environments like airports and maintain focus for extended periods.
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