2022

31. The total number of members of Grievance Redressal Committee, establis

The total number of members of Grievance Redressal Committee, established under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 shall not exceed :

[amp_mcq option1=”Five” option2=”Seven” option3=”Six” option4=”Eight” correct=”option3″]

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The correct answer is Six. The total number of members of the Grievance Redressal Committee, established under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, shall not exceed six.
Section 9C(1) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 states that the employer in every industrial establishment in which fifty or more workmen are employed shall constitute a Grievance Redressal Committee for the resolution of disputes arising out of individual grievances. This sub-section explicitly limits the size, stating, “The Committee shall consist of not more than six members.”
The Grievance Redressal Committee is designed to provide an internal mechanism for resolving individual grievances. Section 9C further specifies that the Committee shall have an equal number of members from the employer and the workmen. The chairperson of the Committee shall be chosen from the employer’s nominees and the workmen’s nominees by rotation every year.

32. What is the term of the Presiding Officer of Employees’ Provident Fund

What is the term of the Presiding Officer of Employees’ Provident Funds Appellate Tribunal ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Five years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier” option2=”Five years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier” option3=”Three years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier” option4=”Three years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier” correct=”option1″]

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The correct answer is (A) Five years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier.
As per Section 7D of the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, the Presiding Officer of the Employees’ Provident Funds Appellate Tribunal holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of sixty-two years, whichever is earlier.
This prescribed term and age limit are specific to the Presiding Officer of this particular tribunal and ensure a balance between tenure and age-related fitness for the role. The conditions for reappointment, if any, would also be governed by the relevant provisions of the Act.

33. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? The Employees’ Prov

Which of the following statements is/are correct ? The Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 is generally applicable to every establishment :

  • 1. which deposits GST of more than ₹ 50,000 per year.
  • 2. employing twenty or more persons.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option2″]

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The correct answer is (B) 2 only.
The Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 is generally applicable to any establishment employing twenty or more persons. This is the primary threshold for coverage under the Act, as specified in Section 1(3). The applicability is based on the number of employees, not on tax parameters like GST deposits.
While the Act initially applied mainly to factories and specific scheduled industries, its coverage has been extended over time to various other establishments employing the minimum number of persons. GST deposition is a tax compliance requirement and is not a criterion for the applicability of the EPF Act.

34. While dealing with complaints of violation of human rights by members

While dealing with complaints of violation of human rights by members of the armed forces, the National Human Rights Commission shall adopt which of the following procedures ?

  • 1. It may, either on its own motion or on receipt of a petition, seek a report from the Central Government.
  • 2. After the receipt of the report, it may proceed with complaints and make its recommendations to that Government.
  • 3. The Central Government shall inform the Commission of the action taken on the recommendation within three months or within the time extended by the Commission.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”1 and 2 only” option3=”1, 2 and 3″ option4=”2 and 3 only” correct=”option3″]

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The correct answer is (C) 1, 2 and 3.
Section 21 of The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, specifically outlines the procedure to be followed by the National Human Rights Commission when dealing with complaints regarding the violation of human rights by members of the armed forces. All three steps listed in the question are part of this procedure: seeking a report from the Central Government (either on its own motion or on a petition), making recommendations to the Central Government after receiving the report, and the Central Government being required to inform the Commission of the action taken on the recommendations within a specified timeframe (usually three months or extended time).
Unlike inquiries into complaints against civilian authorities, where the Commission has powers of a civil court, its jurisdiction over complaints against the armed forces is more restricted. It primarily functions in a recommendatory capacity after seeking a report from the Central Government. This special procedure reflects the distinct nature of the armed forces.

35. The National Human Rights Commission shall, while inquiring into the c

The National Human Rights Commission shall, while inquiring into the complaints for violation of human rights, have all powers of :

[amp_mcq option1=”a High Court.” option2=”a Civil Court only.” option3=”a Criminal Court only.” option4=”both Civil and Criminal Courts.” correct=”option2″]

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The correct answer is (B) a Civil Court only.
Section 13 of The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, grants the National Human Rights Commission, while inquiring into complaints of violation of human rights, all the powers of a civil court trying a suit under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. These powers include summoning witnesses, requiring discovery and production of documents, receiving evidence on affidavits, requisitioning public records, and issuing commissions for the examination of witnesses or documents.
The NHRC functions as an investigative body and a quasi-judicial authority in matters of human rights violations. It does not have the powers of a criminal court, such as the power to issue arrest warrants or pass punitive judgments in criminal matters. Its role is recommendatory regarding prosecution or other actions in case of violations, based on its inquiry.

36. The Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission is appointed b

The Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission is appointed by the :

[amp_mcq option1=”President of India.” option2=”Prime Minister of India.” option3=”Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India.” option4=”Minister-in-charge of the Ministry of Home Affairs.” correct=”option1″]

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The correct answer is (A) President of India.
The Chairperson and Members of the National Human Rights Commission are appointed by the President of India. This appointment is made based on the recommendations of a committee comprising the Prime Minister as the Chairperson, the Speaker of the House of the People, the Minister in-charge of the Ministry of Home Affairs, the Leader of the Opposition in the House of the People, the Leader of the Opposition in the Council of States, and such other Member as may be nominated by the President.
While the Prime Minister chairs the recommendation committee, the formal appointment is made by the President, who is the head of the state. This multi-member committee structure aims to ensure transparency and impartiality in the appointment process for such a crucial body.

37. In India, for better protection of human rights, the National Human Ri

In India, for better protection of human rights, the National Human Rights Commission, State Human Rights Commissions and Human Rights Courts are constituted under :

[amp_mcq option1=”The Human Rights Act, 1988.” option2=”The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.” option3=”The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955.” option4=”The International Bill of Human Rights, 1948.” correct=”option2″]

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The correct answer is (B) The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
In India, the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), State Human Rights Commissions (SHRCs), and Human Rights Courts are constituted under the provisions of The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. This Act was enacted to provide for the constitution of these bodies for better protection of human rights.
The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, is a different law that deals with the punishment for the preaching and practice of untouchability and for the enforcement of any disability arising therefrom. The International Bill of Human Rights is a set of international documents and does not directly govern the establishment of domestic human rights institutions in India, although the Act of 1993 is informed by India’s international human rights obligations.

38. The International Bill of Human Rights consists of the following excep

The International Bill of Human Rights consists of the following except the :

[amp_mcq option1=”Universal Declaration of Human Rights.” option2=”International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights.” option3=”International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights.” option4=”International Court of Justice.” correct=”option4″]

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The correct answer is (D) International Court of Justice.
The International Bill of Human Rights consists of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR), the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR), and the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR), along with their optional protocols. The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations, responsible for settling legal disputes between states and giving advisory opinions, but it is not one of the constituent texts of the International Bill of Human Rights.
The three components of the International Bill of Human Rights collectively establish a comprehensive set of civil, political, economic, social, and cultural rights. The UDHR provides aspirational goals, while the ICCPR and ICESCR are binding treaties for signatory states. The ICJ plays a role in international law, but it is a judicial body separate from the core human rights instruments themselves.

39. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted in :

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted in :

[amp_mcq option1=”1947″ option2=”1948″ option3=”1949″ option4=”1950″ correct=”option2″]

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The correct answer is (B) 1948.
The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in Paris on 10 December 1948. This date is celebrated annually as Human Rights Day.
The UDHR was a response to the atrocities of World War II and represented the first global expression of rights to which all human beings are inherently entitled. Although not a treaty, it has become a foundational document in international human rights law and has inspired many subsequent international human rights treaties and national constitutions.

40. A person shall be punishable with rigorous imprisonment for a term whi

A person shall be punishable with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable for a fine, if the person :

[amp_mcq option1=”commits theft, having made preparations for causing death or hurt to any person in order to committing of such theft.” option2=”causes death of any person while committing theft.” option3=”causes grievous hurt to any person while committing theft.” option4=”causes simple hurt to any person while committing theft.” correct=”option1″]

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The correct answer is (A) commits theft, having made preparations for causing death or hurt to any person in order to committing of such theft.
Section 382 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals with theft after preparation for causing death, hurt, or restraint in order to commit theft. The punishment prescribed for this offence is rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years and also a fine. This precisely matches the description and punishment mentioned in the question.
Options B, C, and D relate to causing death or hurt *while* committing theft, which would typically fall under more severe offences like robbery (Sections 390-392 IPC), dacoity (Sections 391, 395 IPC), robbery or dacoity with attempt to cause death or grievous hurt (Sections 397, 398 IPC), or even culpable homicide/murder depending on the circumstances and intent. These offences often carry higher minimum or maximum sentences than simple theft with preparation for hurt. Section 382 specifically addresses the preparation *before* or *during* the commission of theft to facilitate the theft by causing death, hurt, or restraint.
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