2022

161. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the follow

With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:

  • 1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
  • 2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
  • 3. It has seamless portability across the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”3 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2022
Download PDFAttempt Online
Statement 1 is incorrect. Participation in the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) is voluntary for both citizens and healthcare providers (including private and public hospitals). While the government encourages adoption, it is not mandatory.
Statement 2 is incorrect. ABDM aims to create a digital health ecosystem that supports Universal Health Coverage by making healthcare accessible and efficient. However, stating that “every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately” implies mandatory inclusion, which is not the design. Participation is voluntary; citizens can choose to create an ABHA (Ayushman Bharat Health Account) ID to be part of the system.
Statement 3 is correct. A core feature of ABDM is to facilitate seamless portability of health records. Once digital health records are created and linked using the unique ABHA ID, they can be accessed by the individual and shared with different healthcare providers across the country who are also part of the ABDM network, ensuring continuity of care.
ABDM is a digital initiative to build a national digital health infrastructure. Key components include ABHA ID, Healthcare Professionals Registry, Healthcare Facilities Registry, and Electronic Health Records. Participation is voluntary.
The mission aims to bridge the gap between healthcare providers and patients through digital means, enabling online appointment booking, teleconsultations, and secure storage and sharing of health records. It operates under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

162. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider th

With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

  • 1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
  • 2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
  • 3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2022
Download PDFAttempt Online
Statement 1 is correct. The writ of Mandamus is a command from a superior court to a public official, body, corporation, or tribunal directing them to perform a public duty they are legally required to perform. It will not ordinarily lie against a private individual or organization unless they are performing a public function or are under a public duty imposed by statute or common law.
Statement 2 is incorrect. A writ of Mandamus can lie against a Government Company, especially when it is discharging a public function or duty. The nature of the duty determines whether Mandamus is applicable, not merely the classification as a ‘Company’. If a government company is entrusted with a statutory or public duty, Mandamus can be issued to enforce that duty.
Statement 3 is correct. The writ of Quo Warranto is issued to inquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office. Unlike other writs, any interested person, even if not personally aggrieved, can file a petition for Quo Warranto to prevent a person from holding an office they are not legally entitled to. This is a check against illegal usurpation of public office.
Writs are powerful tools issued by the Supreme Court (under Article 32) and High Courts (under Article 226) to protect fundamental rights and for other purposes. Mandamus compels performance of a public duty, and Quo Warranto questions the legality of holding a public office.
The other writs are Habeas Corpus (to produce a person illegally detained), Prohibition (to prevent a lower court/tribunal from exceeding jurisdiction), and Certiorari (to quash an order of a lower court/tribunal exceeding jurisdiction or violating principles of natural justice). High Courts have a wider scope for issuing writs compared to the Supreme Court, as they can issue them for the enforcement of fundamental rights *and* for any other legal right.

163. Consider the following statements: 1. Attorney General of India and

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
  • 2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2022
Download PDFAttempt Online
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Attorney General of India (AG) has the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of either House of Parliament, any joint sitting of Parliament, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but without a right to vote (Article 88). The Solicitor General of India is not mentioned in the Constitution; it is a statutory position to assist the AG. The Solicitor General does not have the right to participate in the meetings of the Parliament.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 76(3) of the Constitution states that the Attorney General shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. While it is a strong convention that the AG resigns when the Council of Ministers that advised his appointment resigns, the Constitution itself does not mandate that he *must* resign in such a situation. He continues in office until asked to resign by the President or until he chooses to resign.
The Attorney General is the chief legal advisor to the Government of India and has certain rights regarding participation in parliamentary proceedings. The position is held at the pleasure of the President.
The Attorney General must be a person who is qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court. He is appointed by the President on the advice of the government. There are also other law officers of the Government of India, such as the Solicitor General and Additional Solicitor Generals, who assist the Attorney General but are not constitutional functionaries in the same sense.

164. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following

With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:

  • 1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
  • 2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2022
Download PDFAttempt Online
Statement 1 is incorrect. The anti-defection law (Tenth Schedule) specifies that a nominated member of a House can join any political party within six months of taking his seat. Joining a political party after the expiry of six months attracts disqualification.
Statement 2 is correct. The Tenth Schedule does not provide a specific time frame within which the Presiding Officer of the House (Speaker in Lok Sabha, Chairman in Rajya Sabha) must decide on a defection case. This lack of a time limit has often been a subject of controversy and delays in deciding such cases. The Supreme Court has commented on this delay in various judgments and suggested remedies, but the law itself is silent on the timeframe.
The anti-defection law aims to prevent political defections by legislators. It specifies grounds for disqualification based on voluntarily giving up party membership, voting against party directions, or, in the case of nominated members, joining a party after six months. The power to disqualify vests with the Presiding Officer of the House.
The Anti-defection law was added to the Constitution by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985. The decision of the Presiding Officer regarding defection is subject to judicial review, as established by the Supreme Court in the Kihoto Hollohan case (1992).

165. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha ?

Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha ?

  • 1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
  • 2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
  • 3. To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2″ option2=”2 only” option3=”1 and 3″ option4=”3 only” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2022
Download PDFAttempt Online
Only statement 2 describes an exclusive power of the Lok Sabha.
The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha (Article 75(3)). Therefore, a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers can only be moved and passed in the Lok Sabha (Statement 2 is correct and an exclusive power). The resolution approving a proclamation of Emergency must be passed by *both* Houses of Parliament (Statement 1 is incorrect). An impeachment charge against the President can be initiated in *either* House of Parliament, and the other House investigates the charge (Statement 3 is incorrect).
Exclusive powers of the Lok Sabha also include passing Money Bills (which can only be introduced in Lok Sabha) and effectively controlling the purse strings of the government.

166. Consider the following statements: The Constitution of India classif

Consider the following statements:

  • The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
  • The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2022
Download PDFAttempt Online
Only statement 2 is correct.
The Constitution of India does not classify the ministers into specific ranks like Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State, and Deputy Minister. This classification is based on convention and practice (Statement 1 is incorrect). The 91st Amendment Act, 2003, inserted clause (1A) in Article 75, which limits the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Union Council of Ministers to fifteen percent of the total strength of the Lok Sabha (Statement 2 is correct).
The size of the Council of Ministers before the 91st Amendment was not constitutionally limited, leading to large cabinets. The amendment aimed to limit the size of the Council of Ministers and to curb defections.

167. Consider the following statements: A bill amending the Constitution

Consider the following statements:

  • A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
  • When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
  • A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2022
Download PDFAttempt Online
Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
A Bill for the amendment of the Constitution does not require the prior recommendation of the President (Statement 1 is incorrect). Under Article 368, once a Constitution Amendment Bill is passed by Parliament, it is obligatory for the President to give assent (Statement 2 is correct, reinforced by the 24th Amendment Act). A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed separately by each House of Parliament by a special majority (absolute majority of the total membership and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting). There is no provision for a joint sitting to resolve a disagreement on a Constitution Amendment Bill (Statement 3 is correct).
The procedure for amendment of the Constitution is laid down in Article 368. Some amendments also require ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States.

168. With reference to India, consider the following statements: Governme

With reference to India, consider the following statements:

  • Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
  • Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2022
Download PDFAttempt Online
Only statement 2 is correct.
The Bar Council of India (BCI), in consultation with universities, has the power to lay down standards of legal education and grant recognition to law degrees for enrollment as an advocate. Statement 1 is incorrect as the classification and recognition of advocates are governed by the Advocates Act, 1961. While government law officers are enrolled advocates, legal firms are not individuals recognized as advocates. Corporate lawyers and patent attorneys can be enrolled as advocates if they fulfill the conditions laid down by the BCI, although there are regulations regarding full-time employment and right to practice.
The Advocates Act, 1961 consolidates the law relating to legal practitioners in India and provides for the constitution of Bar Councils and the All-India Bar. The BCI is the apex body regulating the legal profession and legal education in India.

169. Consider the following statements: Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sa

Consider the following statements:

  • Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
  • The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
  • The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
  • In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”1, 2 and 4″ option3=”3 and 4 only” option4=”3 only” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2022
Download PDFAttempt Online
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was enacted following the recommendations of the H.N. Sanyal Committee. The Constitution (Articles 129 and 215) grants the Supreme Court and High Courts the power to punish for contempt of themselves. Parliament has the power to make laws relating to contempt of court (Entry 14, Union List).
Statement 3 is incorrect because the Constitution of India does not define civil and criminal contempt; these definitions are provided in the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.

170. Consider the following pairs : Wetland/Lake Location

Consider the following pairs :

Wetland/Lake Location
1. Hokera Wetland Punjab
2. Renuka Wetland Himachal Pradesh
3. Rudrasagar Lake Tripura
4. Sasthamkotta Lake Tamil Nadu

How many pairs given above are correctly matched ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Only one pair” option2=”Only two pairs” option3=”Only three pairs” option4=”All four pairs” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2022
Download PDFAttempt Online
Only two pairs are correctly matched: Renuka Wetland (Himachal Pradesh) and Rudrasagar Lake (Tripura).
Hokera Wetland is located in Jammu and Kashmir. Sasthamkotta Lake is located in Kerala. Renuka Wetland and Rudrasagar Lake are correctly paired with Himachal Pradesh and Tripura, respectively.
These are examples of Ramsar sites (Wetlands of International Importance) in India. Knowing the location of important wetlands and lakes is crucial for environmental geography.
Page 1Page 2Page 3Page 4Page 5
Exit mobile version