141. ‘Garam Hawa’, a movie that depicts the hardship and indecision of the

‘Garam Hawa’, a movie that depicts the hardship and indecision of the protagonist, is related to which one of the following events ?

[amp_mcq option1=”The Sepoy Mutiny” option2=”The Indigo Rebellion” option3=”The Partition of India” option4=”The Paika Rebellion” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2022
‘Garam Hawa’ (released in 1973) is a critically acclaimed Indian film directed by M.S. Sathyu. It depicts the struggles and dilemmas faced by a Muslim family in Agra in the aftermath of the Partition of India in 1947, focusing on their decision to either migrate to Pakistan or stay in India.
– The film is considered one of the most poignant cinematic portrayals of the human cost of the Partition.
– It highlights the emotional and social upheaval caused by the division of the country.
‘Garam Hawa’ was the first feature film to directly address the trauma of the Partition from the perspective of Muslims in India. It was initially banned by the Censor Board but later released to critical acclaim.

142. Which of the following is not among the functions of the Election Comm

Which of the following is not among the functions of the Election Commission of India ?

[amp_mcq option1=”To conduct elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures” option2=”To supervise, direct and control the preparations of the electoral rolls in a State” option3=”To conduct elections to the offices of the President and the Vice-President” option4=”To conduct elections to local bodies like municipalities etc.” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2022
The Election Commission of India (ECI) is responsible for conducting elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures, President, and Vice-President. It also supervises, directs, and controls the preparation of electoral rolls. However, elections to local bodies like municipalities and panchayats are conducted by separate State Election Commissions, which are constitutional bodies under state laws.
– The ECI is established under Article 324 of the Constitution.
– State Election Commissions were created following the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts to conduct elections to Panchayati Raj Institutions and Urban Local Bodies.
The State Election Commission is independent of the Election Commission of India. Its composition and appointment procedures vary across states.

143. The era of planned development is said to have begun with which of the

The era of planned development is said to have begun with which of the following ?

[amp_mcq option1=”The People’s Plan prepared by M.N. Roy in 1945″ option2=”The Bombay Plan prepared by J.R.D. Tata and Others in 1944″ option3=”The Gandhian Plan prepared by S.N. Agarwal in 1944″ option4=”Five-Year Plan presented by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1951″ correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2022
The era of planned development in India officially began with the launch of the First Five-Year Plan in 1951 under the leadership of Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru. The Planning Commission was established in 1950 to formulate these plans.
– The Five-Year Plans became the framework for India’s economic development strategy for over six decades.
– The concept of centralized planning was adopted to guide the allocation of resources and achieve specific socio-economic goals.
While proposals like the Bombay Plan, People’s Plan, and Gandhian Plan existed before 1951, they were not adopted as the official basis for national planning by the government.

144. In which one of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India adj

In which one of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India adjudge that the proclamation of the President’s Rule under Article 356 of the Constitution of India is subject to judicial review ?

[amp_mcq option1=”A.K. Gopalan vs. State of Madras” option2=”S.R. Bommai and Others vs. Union of India” option3=”Madhav Rao vs. Union of India” option4=”S.P. Gupta vs. Union of India” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2022
In the landmark case of S.R. Bommai and Others vs. Union of India (1994), the Supreme Court of India held that the proclamation of President’s Rule under Article 356 is subject to judicial review. The Court ruled that the power under Article 356 is not absolute and can be challenged in court if it is found to be arbitrary, mala fide, or based on irrelevant grounds.
– This judgement significantly restricted the arbitrary use of Article 356 by the central government.
– It established that the reasons for imposing President’s Rule must be justifiable and the President’s decision is not beyond judicial scrutiny.
The Court also stated that the President should exercise the power only after the proclamation has been approved by Parliament, except in cases of extreme urgency. It also restored dissolved state assemblies in some cases.

145. Which one of the following metals is mixed with gold to provide streng

Which one of the following metals is mixed with gold to provide strength to the jewellery?

[amp_mcq option1=”Manganese” option2=”Mica” option3=”Aluminium” option4=”Copper” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2022
Pure gold (24 carat) is very soft and malleable, making it unsuitable for crafting durable jewellery. It is typically alloyed with other metals to increase its hardness and strength. Copper is a common metal used for this purpose, along with silver, nickel, and zinc.
– Alloying increases the durability and wear resistance of gold jewellery.
– The caratage of gold indicates the proportion of pure gold in the alloy (e.g., 18K gold is 75% gold).
The choice of alloying metal also affects the colour of the gold. For example, copper gives a reddish tint (rose gold), while silver and palladium create white gold.

146. Which one of the following are separated by Ten Degree channel ?

Which one of the following are separated by Ten Degree channel ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Car Nicobar and Little Nicobar” option2=”Little Andaman and Middle Andaman” option3=”Car Nicobar and Little Andaman” option4=”Little Andaman and Great Nicobar” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2022
The Ten Degree Channel separates the Andaman Islands from the Nicobar Islands. Specifically, it separates Little Andaman Island (southernmost island of the Andaman group) from Car Nicobar Island (northernmost island of the Nicobar group).
– The channel is named after the 10-degree line of latitude, although it is slightly north of it.
– It is a significant maritime route in the Bay of Bengal.
Other important channels in the region include the Duncan Passage (separating Great Andaman and Little Andaman) and the Great Channel (separating Great Nicobar from Sumatra, Indonesia).

147. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I
(Mountain range)
List II
(Country)
A. Caucasus Mountains 1. Italy
B. Carpathian Mountains 2. Greece
C. Apennine Mountains 3. Georgia
D. Pindus Mountains 4. Ukraine

Code :

[amp_mcq option1=”A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2″ option2=”A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2″ option3=”A-2, B-1, C-4, D-4″ option4=”A-2, B-4, C-1, D-1″ correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2022
The correct matches are:
A. Caucasus Mountains – 3. Georgia (The Caucasus range spans multiple countries including Russia, Georgia, Azerbaijan)
B. Carpathian Mountains – 4. Ukraine (The Carpathians extend across Central and Eastern Europe, including Ukraine)
C. Apennine Mountains – 1. Italy (The Apennines form the backbone of the Italian peninsula)
D. Pindus Mountains – 2. Greece (The Pindus range is located in Greece and Albania)
– These are major mountain ranges in Europe.
– Understanding the geographical location of these ranges is key to answering this question.
The Caucasus range is often considered the boundary between Europe and Asia. The Carpathians form an arc and are the second-longest mountain range in Europe.

148. Which one of the following has recorded the highest decadal (2001 – 11

Which one of the following has recorded the highest decadal (2001 – 11) growth rate of population as per Census 2011?

[amp_mcq option1=”Rajasthan” option2=”Arunachal Pradesh” option3=”Puducherry” option4=”Dadra and Nagar Haveli” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2022
As per Census 2011 data, Dadra and Nagar Haveli recorded the highest decadal population growth rate (2001-2011) among the given options, with a growth rate of 55.9%.
– Decadal growth rate is the percentage change in population over a ten-year period.
– Union Territories and states with significant migration due to economic opportunities often show higher growth rates.
Among the given options, Rajasthan’s growth rate was 21.3%, Arunachal Pradesh was 26.0%, and Puducherry was 28.1%. Nagaland had the lowest decadal growth rate among all states and UTs (-0.6%), while Meghalaya had the highest among states (27.9%).

149. In which one of the following countries is Chabahar Port located?

In which one of the following countries is Chabahar Port located?

[amp_mcq option1=”Afghanistan” option2=”Turkey” option3=”UAE” option4=”Iran” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2022
Chabahar Port is located in Iran. It is a deepwater port in southeastern Iran, on the Gulf of Oman.
– The port is strategically important for countries like India to access Afghanistan and Central Asian countries, bypassing Pakistan.
– India is significantly involved in the development and operation of the port.
Chabahar is Iran’s only oceanic port and consists of two main ports: Shahid Kalantari and Shahid Beheshti. India is primarily developing the Shahid Beheshti terminal.

150. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statement

With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

  • 1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
  • 2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2022
Option C is correct.
Government borrowings in India are primarily financed by domestic savings, a significant portion of which comes from households, either directly or indirectly through financial intermediaries. Dated securities issued through market auctions are a major tool for the government to raise these funds and constitute a large part of its internal debt.
Statement 1 is correct. Household financial savings deposited in banks, invested in mutual funds, insurance, or provident funds are channeled into the financial system. Banks and other financial institutions, which hold a large pool of these savings, are major subscribers to government securities (G-Secs) issued for government borrowing. Thus, a significant portion of household financial savings indirectly contributes to government borrowing.
Statement 2 is correct. The Indian government’s internal debt consists mainly of market borrowings (through the issuance of dated securities and treasury bills), as well as funds raised through small savings schemes and state provident funds. Dated securities, issued through auctions at market-related rates, form the largest component of the central government’s internal debt.

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