281. Which one of the following powers has **not** been conferred on the Pr

Which one of the following powers has **not** been conferred on the President of India?

[amp_mcq option1=”Appointment of Prime Minister” option2=”To decide at his/her discretion any question regarding disqualification of a Member of the Parliament” option3=”To grant pardon to a person who has been punished by a court-martial” option4=”To remove a Judge of the High Court” correct=”option2″]

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A) Appointment of Prime Minister: The President appoints the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister (Article 75). This power is conferred on the President.
B) To decide at his/her discretion any question regarding disqualification of a Member of the Parliament: Regarding disqualification of a Member of Parliament under Article 102 (except disqualification under the Tenth Schedule which is decided by the Speaker/Chairman), the question is referred to the President. However, Article 103(2) mandates that the President shall obtain the opinion of the Election Commission of India and shall act according to such opinion. Therefore, the President does not decide this question *at his/her discretion*. The power to decide is conferred, but *without* discretion. The power *to decide at discretion* is not conferred.
C) To grant pardon to a person who has been punished by a court-martial: The President has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence under Article 72, including sentences by court-martial. This power is conferred.
D) To remove a Judge of the High Court: A Judge of a High Court can be removed from office by the President under Article 217(1)(b) read with Article 124(4). The removal process is initiated in Parliament, and an address by each House must be presented to the President in the same session for the President to issue the removal order. While the President issues the final order, the substantive power and decision-making process reside with Parliament. However, the *power to remove* (as the final executive act) is conferred on the President, albeit conditionally.
Comparing B and D, option B specifically highlights a power *at discretion* which is absent, making it the most accurate answer to the question asking which power *has not been conferred*. The power to decide disqualification under Art 102 *is* conferred on the President, but the associated discretion is not.
– President appoints PM, grants pardons (including court-martial sentences), and issues orders for judge removal (after parliamentary process).
– President decides on MP disqualification (under Art 102), but *must* act on ECI’s advice, thus lacking discretion.
– The question asks for a power not conferred or not conferred in the manner described (at discretion).
The President of India is the head of the Executive, and numerous powers are conferred upon this office by the Constitution. However, most of these powers are exercised on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, except for a few situations where the President may exercise discretion (e.g., appointing a PM when no party has a clear majority). Deciding MP disqualification under Art 102 is an example of a power where the President’s role is formal and bound by external advice (ECI).

282. Consider the following quote: “On the 26th January, 1950, we are going

Consider the following quote:
“On the 26th January, 1950, we are going to enter a life of contradictions. In politics we will have equality and in social and economic life we will have inequality.”
To whom among the following leaders is this quote attributed?

[amp_mcq option1=”Mahatma Gandhi” option2=”Sarojini Naidu” option3=”B. R. Ambedkar” option4=”Somnath Lahiri” correct=”option3″]

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This famous quote is attributed to Dr. B. R. Ambedkar. It is from his concluding speech in the Constituent Assembly on November 25, 1949, delivered just a day before the Constitution was adopted. He spoke about the challenges India would face after becoming a republic, highlighting the contradiction of having political equality (one person, one vote) while persistent social and economic inequalities existed.
– The quote reflects on the inherent contradictions in Indian society at the dawn of the Republic.
– It contrasts political equality bestowed by the Constitution with existing social and economic disparities.
– The quote is from B.R. Ambedkar’s speech in the Constituent Assembly.
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution and is widely regarded as the chief architect of the Constitution. His speeches in the Constituent Assembly provide deep insights into the philosophy and objectives behind the constitutional provisions.

283. The Constitution of India contains no provision for the constitution o

The Constitution of India contains no provision for the constitution of municipalities in every State for

[amp_mcq option1=”a Nagar Panchayat” option2=”a Municipal Council” option3=”a Municipal Corporation” option4=”an Urban Panchayat” correct=”option4″]

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Part IX-A of the Indian Constitution, introduced by the 74th Amendment Act, 1992, deals with Municipalities. Article 243Q mandates the constitution of Municipalities in every State. It specifies three types of Municipalities:
(a) a Nagar Panchayat for a transitional area (an area in transition from a rural area to an urban area);
(b) a Municipal Council for a smaller urban area; and
(c) a Municipal Corporation for a larger urban area.
The Constitution provides for Nagar Panchayats, Municipal Councils, and Municipal Corporations. It does not provide for an “Urban Panchayat”. Panchayats (Village Panchayats, Intermediate Panchayats, District Panchayats) are constitutionally provided for in Part IX for rural areas.
– Part IX-A of the Constitution deals with Municipalities.
– Article 243Q defines the types of Municipalities: Nagar Panchayat, Municipal Council, Municipal Corporation.
– The term “Urban Panchayat” is not used or defined in the Constitution for urban local governance.
The 74th Amendment aimed to provide constitutional status to urban local bodies and ensure their proper functioning. The structure of municipalities varies based on the size and characteristics of the urban area.

284. Which one of the following fundamental rights has **not** been provide

Which one of the following fundamental rights has **not** been provided to a person?

[amp_mcq option1=”Protection against prosecution and punishment for the same offence more than once” option2=”To refuse to give his/her sample of handwriting as evidence to support a prosecution against him/her” option3=”To act as a witness against himself/herself” option4=”Right not to be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of commission of the act charged as an offence” correct=”option2″]

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Article 20 of the Constitution of India provides protection against arbitrary and excessive punishment. Article 20(1) deals with ex post facto laws (Option D). Article 20(2) deals with double jeopardy (Option A). Article 20(3) deals with self-incrimination, stating that “No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.” This grants the right *not* to be compelled to give incriminating testimony. The Supreme Court has held that providing physical evidence like handwriting samples or fingerprints does not fall under the category of being “compelled to be a witness against himself” because it is not testimonial compulsion. Therefore, a person does not have a fundamental right under Article 20(3) to refuse to give a handwriting sample as evidence.
Option C, “To act as a witness against himself/herself,” describes an action that is not a fundamental right; rather, the right is *not to be compelled* into this action. However, option B is a specific type of refusal, which courts have explicitly ruled is *not* a fundamental right protected by Article 20(3). Hence, the right *to refuse* a handwriting sample is not provided as a fundamental right.
– Article 20 provides protection against ex post facto laws, double jeopardy, and self-incrimination.
– The right against self-incrimination (Art 20(3)) protects against *testimonial* compulsion.
– Providing handwriting samples is generally considered non-testimonial evidence by courts.
The interpretation of Article 20(3) regarding physical evidence has evolved through case law. The phrase “to be a witness” has been interpreted narrowly to mean giving oral or documentary evidence of a testimonial character. The right to a fair trial (Option C, in a different interpretation) is considered an integral part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21, but the phrasing in C is confusing. The right to die is not included in Article 21, as held by the Supreme Court in cases like Gian Kaur vs State of Punjab.

285. Who among the following assumed the title of Nizam-ul-Mulk Asaf Jah to

Who among the following assumed the title of Nizam-ul-Mulk Asaf Jah to set himself up as an independent ruler with his base in Hyderabad?

[amp_mcq option1=”Kartalab Khan” option2=”Bahadur Shah” option3=”Alivardi Khan” option4=”Chin Qilich Khan” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
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Mir Qamar-ud-din Khan, a prominent Mughal noble, was granted the title of Nizam-ul-Mulk Fath Jang by the Mughal emperor Farrukhsiyar. He later consolidated his control over the Deccan region and effectively established the independent state of Hyderabad, although he continued to pay nominal allegiance to the Mughal emperor. He is also known by his alternative name Chin Qilich Khan and was the founder of the Asaf Jahi dynasty of Hyderabad.
– Chin Qilich Khan (Mir Qamar-ud-din Khan) was a key figure in the Deccan during the decline of the Mughal Empire.
– He was granted the title Nizam-ul-Mulk Asaf Jah.
– He established the virtually independent state of Hyderabad in the early 18th century.
Alivardi Khan was the Nawab of Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha, who also established a degree of independence from the Mughals around the same period. Bahadur Shah refers to Mughal Emperors. Kartalab Khan was a title held by various individuals; Murshid Quli Khan, the founder of the independent Nawabdom of Bengal, was also known by this title earlier in his career.

286. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? 1. Permanen

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

1. Permanent Settlement:Lord Cornwallis
2. Ryotwari Settlement:Thomas Munro
3. Mahalwari Settlement:Holt Mackenzie

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”1 and 2 only” option3=”2 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
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Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Permanent Settlement (also known as the Zamindari system) was introduced in Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha by Lord Cornwallis in 1793.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: The Ryotwari Settlement was introduced by Captain Alexander Read in some areas of Madras Presidency in 1792, and later developed and widely implemented by Thomas Munro from 1820.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Mahalwari Settlement was devised by Holt Mackenzie in 1822 and introduced in parts of North-Western Provinces (later Uttar Pradesh), Central India, and Punjab.
– Permanent Settlement: Zamindars were recognized as owners of land and responsible for collecting revenue; fixed revenue.
– Ryotwari Settlement: Revenue collected directly from the cultivators (ryots); revenue rates were periodically revised.
– Mahalwari Settlement: Revenue collected from villages (mahals) collectively; revenue was periodically revised.

287. Which of the following statements about Amaranayakas of Vijayanagara a

Which of the following statements about Amaranayakas of Vijayanagara are correct?

  • 1. The Amaranayakas were military commanders who were given territories to govern by the Raya.
  • 2. In lieu of their service and also to maintain their contingents, they were paid in cash.
  • 3. They maintained stipulated contingents and elephants.
  • 4. They used to send tribute to the king annually and personally appeared in the royal court with gifts to express their loyalty.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

[amp_mcq option1=”1, 2 and 3 only” option2=”1, 3 and 4 only” option3=”2 and 4 only” option4=”1, 2, 3 and 4″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
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Statement 1 is correct: The Amara-Nayaka system was a key feature of the Vijayanagara Empire. Amaranayakas were military commanders or provincial governors appointed by the Raya (king) who were granted territories (known as ‘amaram’ or ‘amaramagani’) in exchange for their services.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Amaranayakas were primarily paid not in cash, but through the revenue collected from the territories granted to them. They were allowed to retain a portion of the revenue to maintain their contingents and for their personal expenses, while the rest was due to the king as tribute.
Statement 3 is correct: A major obligation of the Amaranayakas was to maintain a stipulated number of soldiers, horses, and elephants ready for service to the king.
Statement 4 is correct: The Amaranayakas were required to send tribute to the king annually from the revenue of their amaram lands and personally appear in the royal court with gifts to demonstrate their loyalty and allegiance.
– Amaranayakas were military chiefs or governors under the Vijayanagara rule.
– They were granted land (amaram) for their services.
– Their pay was primarily through revenue from the granted land, not cash.
– They maintained troops and were obliged to render military service to the king.
– They paid annual tribute and presented gifts to the king.
The Amara-Nayaka system is often compared to the Iqta system of the Delhi Sultanate and the feudal systems elsewhere, though it had its unique characteristics. The system played a crucial role in the military strength and administration of the Vijayanagara Empire, but also contributed to its eventual decline as Nayakas became increasingly independent.

288. Which of the following statements about Akbar are correct? 1. In 156

Which of the following statements about Akbar are correct?

  • 1. In 1560s, Akbar had the Fort of Agra constructed.
  • 2. In 1570s, Akbar decided to build a new capital at Fatehpur Sikri.
  • 3. Akbar also commissioned a white marble tomb of Shaikh Salim Chishti at Sikri.
  • 4. In 1585, Akbar decided to shift the capital back to Agra.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

[amp_mcq option1=”1, 2 and 4″ option2=”1, 2 and 3″ option3=”2, 3 and 4″ option4=”3 and 4 only” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
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Statement 1 is correct: Akbar began the construction of the Agra Fort around 1565, transforming the existing fort into a major Mughal stronghold.
Statement 2 is correct: In the 1570s, specifically after the birth of his son Jahangir (in 1569) and the victory over Gujarat, Akbar decided to build a new capital city at Fatehpur Sikri, near the khanqah of Shaikh Salim Chishti. Construction was largely completed by the mid-1570s.
Statement 3 is correct: Akbar commissioned the construction of the tomb of Shaikh Salim Chishti at Fatehpur Sikri. While the original tomb was likely sandstone, it was later encased in white marble by Akbar himself, and the entire complex is a significant part of Fatehpur Sikri.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Akbar shifted his capital from Fatehpur Sikri to Lahore in 1585 to oversee the frontier in the northwest and respond to the Yusufzai rebellion. He remained in Lahore until 1598, only returning to Agra later.
– Akbar initiated construction of Agra Fort in the 1560s.
– Fatehpur Sikri was built as a new capital in the 1570s.
– The marble tomb of Shaikh Salim Chishti is located at Fatehpur Sikri and was commissioned by Akbar.
– Akbar moved his capital to Lahore in 1585, not back to Agra.
Fatehpur Sikri was the Mughal capital for about 15 years (c. 1571-1585) before it was abandoned, likely due to water scarcity or strategic reasons leading to the move to Lahore. Akbar returned to Agra in 1598 where he died in 1605.

289. In which one of the following soils, the salt content is so high that

In which one of the following soils, the salt content is so high that common salt is obtained by evaporating the saline water in some areas?

[amp_mcq option1=”Peaty soil” option2=”Alluvial soil” option3=”Laterite soil” option4=”Arid soil” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2021
Arid soils are characteristic of dry regions with high evaporation. Due to capillary action, salts from lower layers are brought to the surface, leading to high salinity. In areas with saline arid soils, particularly those with shallow groundwater or proximity to saline water sources, the salt content can be so high that common salt can be obtained by evaporating the saline water collected in pans. This practice is common in Rann of Kutch, which has characteristics of arid soil.
– Arid soils are found in dry climates.
– High evaporation in arid regions leads to salt accumulation on the surface.
– Saline arid soils can be a source of common salt through evaporation.
Peaty soils are found in humid areas with waterlogged conditions and high organic matter. Alluvial soils are deposited by rivers and are generally fertile, although they can become saline in dry areas with poor drainage. Laterite soils are formed in tropical regions through intense leaching and are rich in iron and aluminum oxides, typically acidic and not saline.

290. Which of the following statements about tropical rain forests are corr

Which of the following statements about tropical rain forests are correct?

  • 1. The soils of tropical rain forests are quite infertile.
  • 2. The vegetation is evergreen, enabling photosynthesis to take place year around.
  • 3. They have been described as ‘deserts covered by trees’.
  • 4. They are most productive land-based ecosystem.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

[amp_mcq option1=”2 and 4 only” option2=”1, 3 and 4 only” option3=”1, 2 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2, 3 and 4″ correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2021
The correct answer is D) 1, 2, 3 and 4.
Let’s examine each statement:
1. The soils of tropical rain forests are quite infertile: Correct. High rainfall leads to rapid leaching of nutrients. Rapid decomposition returns nutrients, but they are quickly absorbed by the dense vegetation, leaving the soil itself poor in nutrients, especially mineral nutrients.
2. The vegetation is evergreen, enabling photosynthesis to take place year around: Correct. Tropical rainforests experience high temperatures and rainfall throughout the year, supporting continuous growth and photosynthesis, resulting in evergreen forests.
3. They have been described as ‘deserts covered by trees’: Correct. This phrase highlights the paradox of incredibly lush vegetation growing on nutrient-poor soil, contrasting the high biomass with the low soil fertility, much like how a desert is characterized by poor soil although it lacks the trees.
4. They are most productive land-based ecosystem: Correct. Due to favorable conditions of high sunlight, temperature, and water availability year-round, tropical rainforests exhibit the highest rates of primary productivity among all terrestrial ecosystems.
All four statements accurately describe characteristics of tropical rain forests.
The high productivity of tropical rainforests is concentrated in the biomass, not the soil. The rapid nutrient cycling makes the ecosystem vulnerable if the vegetation cover is removed, as the underlying soil cannot support regrowth for long without the constant input from decomposing organic matter. Deforestation in these areas often leads to soil degradation.