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11. What is the medium used in optical storage systems for reading and rec

What is the medium used in optical storage systems for reading and recording data ?

[amp_mcq option1=”High-energy visible light” option2=”Laser light” option3=”Ultraviolet light” option4=”Black light” correct=”option2″]

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Optical storage systems, such as CDs, DVDs, and Blu-ray discs, use a focused beam of light to read and write data on the surface of the disc. This light is typically produced by a laser diode. The laser beam interacts with the data layer on the disc, and changes in the reflected light are detected and interpreted as data (pits and lands representing binary 0s and 1s). For writing, a higher power laser is used to physically alter the data layer.

– Optical storage relies on light to interact with the storage medium.
– Lasers provide the focused, coherent light required for the high data densities and precision needed in optical storage.

The wavelength of the laser light varies depending on the type of optical media. CDs use infrared laser (around 780 nm), DVDs use red laser (around 650 nm), and Blu-ray discs use blue-violet laser (around 405 nm). Shorter wavelengths allow for smaller pits/lands and thus higher storage capacity.

12. In a computer system, which of the following two registers are used by

In a computer system, which of the following two registers are used by the CPU to transfer the data between processor and memory ?

[amp_mcq option1=”MDR and IR” option2=”PC and IR” option3=”MAR and MDR” option4=”IR and MAR” correct=”option3″]

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The correct answer is C) MAR and MDR.

When the CPU needs to access memory (either to read data/instruction or write data), it uses two primary registers for the transfer:
1. Memory Address Register (MAR): Stores the address of the memory location the CPU wants to access.
2. Memory Data Register (MDR) or Memory Buffer Register (MBR): Temporarily stores the data being read from or written to the memory location specified by the MAR. Data flows between the MDR and the data bus, and between the data bus and memory.

The Instruction Register (IR) holds the current instruction being executed. The Program Counter (PC) holds the address of the *next* instruction. While PC is used to fetch the next instruction (by placing its value in MAR), IR and PC are not the registers directly involved in the data *transfer* between the processor and memory in a general sense; that role is specific to MAR and MDR.

13. In a computer system, a 32-bit address bus can address

In a computer system, a 32-bit address bus can address

[amp_mcq option1=”32 memory locations.” option2=”2³² memory locations.” option3=”32² memory locations.” option4=”32⁸ memory locations.” correct=”option2″]

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The correct answer is B) 2³² memory locations.

An address bus is used to specify memory locations. The number of bits in the address bus determines the maximum number of unique addresses that the CPU can generate. With an n-bit address bus, there are 2^n possible unique binary combinations, each representing a distinct memory address. Therefore, a 32-bit address bus can address 2^32 memory locations.

In computing, 2^10 is 1 Kilobyte (KB), 2^20 is 1 Megabyte (MB), 2^30 is 1 Gigabyte (GB). So, 2^32 locations would correspond to 4 Gigabytes (4 GB) of addressable memory space (assuming each location is 1 byte). This is a common address space size for 32-bit systems.

14. Which one of the following stores the results produced by arithmetic a

Which one of the following stores the results produced by arithmetic and logic unit of a computer ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Instruction Register (IR)” option2=”Program Counter (PC)” option3=”Accumulator (ACC)” option4=”Memory Address Register (MAR)” correct=”option3″]

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The correct answer is C) Accumulator (ACC).

The Accumulator (ACC) is a general-purpose register in a CPU that is commonly used to store the intermediate results of arithmetic and logic operations performed by the Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU). While modern architectures use multiple general-purpose registers for this role, the Accumulator was historically and conceptually the dedicated register for accumulating results from the ALU.

The Instruction Register (IR) holds the instruction being executed. The Program Counter (PC) holds the address of the next instruction. The Memory Address Register (MAR) holds the address of the memory location being accessed. The Memory Data Register (MDR) holds the data being transferred to or from memory. Only the Accumulator is specifically associated with storing ALU results directly.

15. An enrolled member of CISF aggrieved by an order made under Section 8

An enrolled member of CISF aggrieved by an order made under Section 8 of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968, may file an appeal against the order within

[amp_mcq option1=”30 days.” option2=”one month.” option3=”60 days.” option4=”three months.” correct=”option1″]

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The correct answer is A) 30 days.

Section 9(1) of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968 provides for appeals against orders made under Section 8. It states that the appeal must be filed “within such time… as may be prescribed by the Central Government”. Rule 28(2) of the Central Industrial Security Force Rules, 2001, which are the prescribed rules, explicitly states that an appeal shall be preferred within a period of “thirty days” from the date of service of the order.

The specific time limit for filing an appeal is laid down in the rules framed under the Act. The CISF Rules, 2001 are the relevant rules. Rule 28(2) is precise, specifying “thirty days”. While one month might approximate thirty days, legal timelines are usually specified in days for clarity.

16. Section 15 A of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968 restri

Section 15 A of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968 restricts members of the force to

1. form any association.
2. be a member of any trade union, labour union or political association.
3. be a member of any society, institution, association or organisation not recognized as the part of the force.
4. be the part of an organisation, society, institution or association which is purely social, recreational or religious in nature.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1, 2, 3 and 4″ option2=”1, 2 and 3 only” option3=”2 and 3 only” option4=”1 and 4 only” correct=”option1″]

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The correct answer is A) 1, 2, 3 and 4.

Section 15A of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968 imposes restrictions on members regarding associations, etc. It states that no member shall, without previous sanction of the Central Government or prescribed authority, “be a member of, or be associated in any way with, any trade union, labour union, political association or with any class of people or organisation, association or union, or be a member of any society, institution or association or organisation that is not recognised as part of the Force or is not of a purely social, recreational or religious nature”.

Analyzing the section:
1. “form any association”: Forming an association implies being a member or associated with it. Section 15A restricts membership/association with various types of bodies. Therefore, forming such associations without sanction is restricted.
2. “be a member of any trade union, labour union or political association”: This is explicitly restricted by Section 15A(a).
3. “be a member of any society, institution, association or organisation not recognized as the part of the force”: This is explicitly restricted by Section 15A(a).
4. “be the part of an organisation, society, institution or association which is purely social, recreational or religious in nature”: Section 15A(a) includes “or is not of a purely social, recreational or religious nature” as part of the description of restricted bodies that are “not recognised as part of the Force”. This phrasing means that even purely social, recreational, or religious bodies require prior sanction for membership, similar to unrecognized bodies. Thus, membership in these is also restricted without sanction.
All four listed activities require prior sanction and are hence restricted.

17. CISF members have power to arrest any person without warrant under

CISF members have power to arrest any person without warrant under

[amp_mcq option1=”Section 10 of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968.” option2=”Section 11 of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968.” option3=”Section 12 of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968.” option4=”Section 13 of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968.” correct=”option2″]

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The correct answer is B) Section 11 of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968.

Section 11 of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968 outlines the powers of members of the Force. Specifically, Section 11(3) grants enrolled members the power to arrest any person without warrant in certain specified circumstances, including those committing offences under the CISF Act itself or interfering with protected property. Section 11(1) also confers upon members certain powers of a police officer.

Section 10 provides protection for acts done in good faith. Section 12 deals with the power to search without warrant. Section 13 deals with power to take action against persons obstructing inquiry or search. Thus, Section 11 is the primary section empowering CISF members to make arrests, including without warrant under specific conditions mentioned within that section.

18. Dismissal, removal, etc. of enrolled members of CISF under Section 8 o

Dismissal, removal, etc. of enrolled members of CISF under Section 8 of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968 is subject to

[amp_mcq option1=”Article 311 of the Constitution of India.” option2=”the rules framed by the Central Government under this Act.” option3=”the rules made by the State Governments.” option4=”Article 311 of the Constitution of India and such other rules as framed by the Central Government under this Act.” correct=”option4″]

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The correct answer is D) Article 311 of the Constitution of India and such other rules as framed by the Central Government under this Act.

Dismissal, removal, or reduction in rank of persons holding civil posts under the Union or a State is subject to the constitutional safeguards provided in Article 311 of the Constitution of India, which ensures principles of natural justice like the right to be heard. While CISF is a force, its enrolled members are considered holders of civil posts. The Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968, in Section 8, allows for such actions by the prescribed authority, but this power must be exercised in accordance with the procedural rules framed by the Central Government under Section 22 of the Act. These rules, as well as the actions taken under them, must conform to the constitutional mandate of Article 311.

Article 311 provides protection against arbitrary dismissal, removal, or reduction in rank. The specific detailed procedure, including the types of inquiries and appeals, is laid down in the rules framed under the CISF Act by the Central Government (e.g., CISF Rules, 2001). Therefore, the process is governed by both the constitutional requirement of Article 311 and the procedural framework provided by the Central Government rules. State government rules are irrelevant as CISF is a Central force.

19. Which one of the following pairs of Section and Clause with regard to

Which one of the following pairs of Section and Clause with regard to the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is not correctly matched ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Section 113 A : Presumption as to abetment of suicide by a married woman” option2=”Section 114 A : Presumption of Rape” option3=”Section 112 : Presumption of legitimacy of child” option4=”Section 114 : Presumption of general exceptions under IPC” correct=”option4″]

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The correct answer is D) Section 114 : Presumption of general exceptions under IPC.

Section 114 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 allows the Court to presume the existence of certain facts, illustrated by common experience (e.g., a man who is in possession of stolen goods soon after the theft is either the thief or has received the goods knowing them to be stolen). It does not deal with presumptions regarding general exceptions under the Indian Penal Code (IPC), such as the presumption of innocence or the burden of proving exceptions like self-defence or unsoundness of mind, which are often governed by the general principles of criminal law and specific provisions where applicable.

The other options are correctly matched:
A) Section 113A deals with the presumption as to abetment of suicide by a married woman.
B) Section 114A deals with the presumption as to absence of consent in certain prosecutions for rape.
C) Section 112 deals with the presumption of legitimacy of a child born during lawful wedlock.

20. When the question is whether a person has committed the dowry death of

When the question is whether a person has committed the dowry death of a woman and it is shown that before her death she was subjected to cruelty or harassment in any connection with the demand for dowry, the presumption of dowry death under Section 113 B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 would be

[amp_mcq option1=”conclusive proof.” option2=”presumption of law.” option3=”a non-rebuttable presumption.” option4=”conclusive proof and non-rebuttable.” correct=”option2″]

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The correct answer is B) presumption of law.

Section 113B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, relating to the presumption of dowry death, uses the phrase “shall presume”. According to Section 4 of the Act, “shall presume” means that the Court shall regard the fact as proved, unless and until it is disproved. This type of presumption is a rebuttable presumption of law. The burden is on the accused to disprove the fact presumed by the law.

The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 defines three categories of presumptions in Section 4: “may presume” (presumption of fact, rebuttable), “shall presume” (presumption of law, rebuttable), and “conclusive proof” (irrebuttable presumption of law). Section 113A (abetment of suicide by a married woman) uses “may presume” (presumption of fact), while Section 113B (dowry death) uses “shall presume” (presumption of law). Conclusive proof is used in sections like Section 112 (legitimacy of child born during wedlock). Since Section 113B allows the presumption to be “disproved”, it is rebuttable and thus not “conclusive proof” or “non-rebuttable”.