81. Which one of the following does *not* describe the procedure or substa

Which one of the following does *not* describe the procedure or substance of the amendments to the Indian Constitution ?

[amp_mcq option1=”The Bill to amend the Constitution has to be laid in any House of the Union Parliament.” option2=”The basic features of the Constitution cannot be amended.” option3=”In the event of a deadlock between the two Houses of the Parliament, there is no provision for a joint session.” option4=”The President cannot veto a Bill for the amendment of the Constitution.” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2020
The statement “The basic features of the Constitution cannot be amended” describes a substantive limitation on the amending power derived from judicial interpretation, rather than a direct description of the formal amendment procedure outlined in Article 368 or the explicit substance mentioned therein.
– Article 368 of the Constitution lays down the procedure for constitutional amendment.
– Statements A, C, and D describe aspects of this formal procedure: A) Bill can be introduced in either House (Art 368(2)), C) No joint session for amendment bills (Art 108 doesn’t apply to Art 368 bills), D) President must give assent (Art 368(2) as amended by 24th Amendment).
– Statement B refers to the ‘Basic Structure’ doctrine established by the Supreme Court (Kesavananda Bharati case, 1973). While a fundamental principle governing the *power* of amendment concerning substance, it is a judicially evolved concept and not part of the explicit procedural steps or inherent substance described in the constitutional text of Article 368.
The Basic Structure doctrine is a significant limitation on Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution, ensuring that essential features remain intact. However, when asked to describe the *procedure* or *substance* within the formal framework, statements detailing the steps and requirements of Article 368 (like introduction, passage, assent) are direct descriptions, whereas the basic structure is a judicially imposed constraint on the *extent* of amendment concerning substance, not a description of the substance itself or the process to change it.

82. Arrange the following chronologically: 1. 44th Amendment Act 2. Minerv

Arrange the following chronologically:
1. 44th Amendment Act
2. Minerva Mills Case
3. Amendment to Preamble
4. Kesavananda Bharati Case
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

[amp_mcq option1=”4-3-1-2″ option2=”4-3-2-1″ option3=”3-4-1-2″ option4=”2-4-3-1″ correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2020
The correct chronological order is Kesavananda Bharati Case, Amendment to Preamble (42nd Amendment), 44th Amendment Act, and Minerva Mills Case.
– Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973) established the ‘Basic Structure’ doctrine.
– The 42nd Amendment Act (1976) added words ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’, and ‘Integrity’ to the Preamble.
– The 44th Amendment Act (1978) reversed some changes made by the 42nd Amendment and removed the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights.
– Minerva Mills Case (1980) re-affirmed the Basic Structure doctrine and struck down parts of the 42nd Amendment.
Understanding the timeline of major constitutional amendments and landmark Supreme Court judgments related to the basic structure is crucial for Indian Polity. The Kesavananda Bharati case was a pivotal moment defining the limits of Parliament’s amending power. The 42nd and 44th Amendments were significant legislative events during the Emergency and post-Emergency periods, respectively, while the Minerva Mills case further clarified the scope of the basic structure doctrine.

83. Which of the following is an incorrect procedure to impeach a Judge of

Which of the following is an incorrect procedure to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court?

[amp_mcq option1=”A motion addressed to the President signed by at least 100 members of the Lok Sabha or 50 members of the Rajya Sabha is delivered to the Speaker or the Chairman.” option2=”The motion is to be taken up for investigation by a Committee comprising 2 Judges of the Supreme Court and a distinguished jurist.” option3=”The motion is put to vote irrespective of the outcome of the Committee’s Report.” option4=”The motion needs to be passed by each House by majority of the total membership of that House and two-thirds of the members present and voting.” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2020
The correct answer is The motion is put to vote irrespective of the outcome of the Committee’s Report.
– The procedure for impeachment of a Supreme Court Judge is governed by the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, read with Articles 124(4) and 217 of the Constitution.
– The process involves:
– Initiation of a motion signed by required members (100 LS or 50 RS) (Option A – Correct initial step).
– Constitution of an Inquiry Committee by the Speaker/Chairman (Option B describes a committee, though its composition description is inaccurate based on the Act’s specification of one SC judge, one HC Chief Justice, and one jurist. However, the *existence* of a committee is correct).
– Investigation and Report by the Committee.
– **Crucially, if the Committee reports that the Judge is *not* guilty, the motion lapses, and no further steps are taken in either House. Only if the Committee finds the Judge guilty is the motion taken up for consideration and voting.** (Option C is incorrect).
– Passing the motion in each House by a special majority (majority of total membership and 2/3rd of members present and voting) (Option D – Correct).
– Option C describes a procedure where the outcome of the mandatory inquiry report is ignored, which directly contradicts the statutory procedure laid down in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. The report’s finding of guilt is a necessary precondition for the motion to be voted upon in the Houses.
– While Option B’s description of the committee’s composition is factually incorrect (the Act specifies one SC Judge, one HC Chief Justice, and one jurist, not two SC Judges), Option C describes a fundamental failure to follow the laid down sequence and dependency, making it the more clearly incorrect *procedural step* in the sequence.

84. Which one of the following is a correct description of the Indian Fede

Which one of the following is a correct description of the Indian Federal System?

[amp_mcq option1=”Dual citizenship” option2=”States have equal representation in the Council of States” option3=”Persons belonging to the all-India services can be dismissed or removed by the States” option4=”Unlike in the USA, there is no dual system of courts” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2020
The correct answer is Unlike in the USA, there is no dual system of courts.
– India has an integrated judicial system with the Supreme Court at the apex, followed by High Courts at the state level, and subordinate courts below them. Judgments of higher courts are binding on lower courts.
– In contrast, the USA has a dual system of courts: a federal judiciary system and separate state judicial systems, each with its own hierarchy.
– A) Dual citizenship: Incorrect. India has single citizenship.
– B) States have equal representation in the Council of States: Incorrect. Representation in the Rajya Sabha is based on population, not equal for all states.
– C) Persons belonging to the all-India services can be dismissed or removed by the States: Incorrect. Members of All India Services (like IAS, IPS) are appointed by the Union and are under the control of both Union and State governments, but disciplinary action like dismissal or removal requires Presidential approval.

85. Persons belonging to the third gender category cannot be discriminated

Persons belonging to the third gender category cannot be discriminated against by the State and its institutions. Which Articles of the Constitution support this interpretation by the Supreme Court?

[amp_mcq option1=”Articles 14 and 19″ option2=”Articles 16 and 21″ option3=”Articles 14 and 21″ option4=”Articles 19 and 32″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2020
The correct answer is Articles 14 and 21.
– In the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) vs. Union of India judgment (2014), the Supreme Court recognized transgender persons as the ‘third gender’.
– The Court held that discrimination on the basis of ‘gender identity’ is prohibited under the Constitution.
– The judgment primarily relied on Articles 14 (Equality before law and equal protection of laws) and 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty) to uphold the rights and dignity of transgender individuals.
– The Court also invoked Article 15 (Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth) and Article 16 (Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment), interpreting ‘sex’ to include gender identity.
– Article 19 (Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.) was also cited regarding the right to express one’s gender identity.
– While Articles 14, 15, 16, 19, and 21 are all relevant, Articles 14 and 21 are fundamental to the Court’s reasoning on dignity, self-determination, and non-discrimination regarding gender identity, making option C the most central and accurate choice among the given options.

86. Which among the following is a west flowing river?

Which among the following is a west flowing river?

[amp_mcq option1=”Teesta” option2=”Tapti” option3=”Subarnarekha” option4=”Betwa” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2020
The correct answer is Tapti.
– Most major rivers in India flow eastward into the Bay of Bengal.
– Tapti (or Tapi) is one of the few major rivers that flows westward into the Arabian Sea.
– Other major west-flowing rivers in India include the Narmada, Indus, Mahi, Periyar, and Mandovi.
– The Teesta flows south and then east, joining the Brahmaputra.
– The Subarnarekha flows generally east into the Bay of Bengal.
– The Betwa flows north-east, joining the Yamuna (a tributary of the Ganges, which flows east).

87. Viticulture is a type of cultivation, largely a speciality of

Viticulture is a type of cultivation, largely a speciality of

[amp_mcq option1=”Tropical areas.” option2=”Mediterranean region.” option3=”Sub-tropical areas.” option4=”Semi-arid areas.” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2020
The correct answer is Mediterranean region.
– Viticulture is the cultivation and harvesting of grapes.
– The Mediterranean climate, characterized by warm, dry summers and mild, wet winters, is particularly well-suited for growing grapes, especially those used for wine production.
– Major wine-producing regions globally, such as those in Italy, France, Spain, California, Chile, South Africa, and parts of Australia, experience climates similar to the Mediterranean.
– While grapes can be grown in other climates, the specific conditions of the Mediterranean region contribute significantly to the quality and characteristics of wine grapes.

88. Which one of the following megacities has the highest population ?

Which one of the following megacities has the highest population ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Delhi” option2=”Tokyo” option3=”Canton” option4=”Seoul” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2020
The correct answer is Tokyo.
– Comparing the metropolitan areas of the given cities:
– Tokyo (Greater Tokyo Area) is widely recognized as the world’s most populous metropolitan area.
– Delhi (National Capital Region) is a major metropolitan area but generally smaller than Tokyo.
– Canton (Guangzhou Metropolitan Area) is a major metropolitan area in China but smaller than Tokyo.
– Seoul (Seoul Capital Area) is a major metropolitan area but smaller than Tokyo.
– Population figures for metropolitan areas can vary depending on the definition used (e.g., urban agglomeration, metropolitan area). However, by most standard definitions of metropolitan areas, Tokyo consistently ranks as the largest in the world.
– As of recent estimates, Tokyo’s metropolitan area population is over 37 million, while Delhi’s is around 30-32 million, Seoul’s around 25 million, and Guangzhou’s around 20-22 million.

89. Where is the headquarters of the ASEAN (Association of South East Asia

Where is the headquarters of the ASEAN (Association of South East Asian Nations) located ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Dhaka” option2=”Bangkok” option3=”Kuala Lumpur” option4=”Jakarta” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2020
The correct answer is Jakarta.
– The Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN) is a regional intergovernmental organization comprising ten Southeast Asian countries.
– Its permanent Secretariat is located in Jakarta, Indonesia.
– ASEAN was founded on August 8, 1967, in Bangkok, Thailand, with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok Declaration) by the founding fathers of ASEAN.
– The member states are Brunei Darussalam, Cambodia, Indonesia, Lao PDR, Malaysia, Myanmar, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam.

90. The Trans-Siberian Railway runs from

The Trans-Siberian Railway runs from

[amp_mcq option1=”Moscow to Vladivostok.” option2=”St. Petersburg to Moscow.” option3=”St. Petersburg to Vladivostok.” option4=”Moscow to Sochi.” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2020
The correct answer is Moscow to Vladivostok.
– The Trans-Siberian Railway is a network of railways connecting Moscow with the Russian Far East and the Sea of Japan.
– The main route, often referred to as the Trans-Siberian Railway, runs from Moscow to Vladivostok.
– Construction of the railway began in 1891 and was completed in 1916.
– It is the longest railway line in the world.
– Other routes in the network include the Trans-Manchurian and Trans-Mongolian railways.