2020 Archives

71. Which one of the following should be the minimum distance between two

Which one of the following should be the minimum distance between two items going through the X-BIS ?

[amp_mcq option1=”20 cm” option2=”30 cm” option3=”60 cm” option4=”40 cm” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2020

The minimum distance between two items on the conveyor belt of an X-ray Baggage Inspection System (X-BIS) is typically specified to be around 30 cm.

Maintaining a minimum gap between items is essential for the X-ray machine to produce clear, distinct images of each item. If items are too close or overlapping, their images can merge, making it difficult or impossible for the screener to accurately analyze the contents and detect potential threats.

Operational guidelines for X-ray screening equipment emphasize proper placement of items on the belt, including adequate separation, to maximize screening efficiency and effectiveness. While a larger gap might provide clearer separation, 30 cm is often considered a balance between image clarity and processing speed.

72. A screener should not be doing screening for more than

A screener should not be doing screening for more than

[amp_mcq option1=”10 minutes” option2=”15 minutes” option3=”20 minutes” option4=”25 minutes” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2020

Download PDF Attempt Online

The internationally recommended maximum duration for a screener to continuously perform screening duties, especially involving tasks requiring high concentration like X-ray image analysis or physical frisking, is typically limited to 20 minutes.

Limiting the continuous screening time is crucial to prevent fatigue, maintain alertness, and ensure effectiveness in detecting threats. After this period, screeners should be rotated to other less demanding tasks or take a break.

Different security agencies and countries may have slightly varying guidelines, but 20 minutes is a widely adopted best practice in aviation and other high-security screening environments. This practice enhances overall security performance by reducing the risk of human error due to tiredness or monotony.

73. Which one of the following substances does not belong to class ‘B’ fir

Which one of the following substances does not belong to class ‘B’ fire ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Molten Sulphur” option2=”Alcohol” option3=”Solvent” option4=”Paint” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2020

Download PDF Attempt Online

Paint is the substance among the options that does not exclusively belong to Class ‘B’ fires, as it can also cause Class ‘A’ fires (e.g., dried paint) or be non-flammable (water-based paint).

– Class B fires involve flammable liquids and gases (e.g., petrol, oil, alcohol, propane).
– Alcohol and Solvents are standard examples of flammable liquids that cause Class B fires.
– Molten Sulphur, while solid at room temperature, burns as a flammable liquid when molten and is classified as a Class B fire hazard.
– Paint’s classification depends on its composition. Solvent-based paints cause Class B fires due to the flammable solvents. However, water-based paints contain minimal flammable solvents; their fire risk is primarily from the combustible solid components/residue, which would be a Class A fire. Dried paint is also a combustible solid (Class A).

Fire classification systems categorize fires based on the type of fuel involved, as different types of fires require different extinguishing agents. While many paints are Class B due to solvents, the general term ‘Paint’ is ambiguous and can include substances that result in Class A fires, making it the one least definitively belonging *only* to Class B among the options.

74. Which one of the following is not part of DFMD ?

Which one of the following is not part of DFMD ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Electronic Unit” option2=”Lead Curtain” option3=”Remote Control Unit” option4=”Cross Piece” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2020

Download PDF Attempt Online

A Lead Curtain is not a standard component of a Door Frame Metal Detector (DFMD).

– DFMDs use electromagnetic fields to detect metallic objects as a person walks through the frame. Key components include the electronic unit (generating fields, processing signals), the frame structure (cross piece, side panels), and sometimes a remote control or interface.
– Lead curtains are used for shielding against X-rays, commonly found in X-ray baggage scanners to protect operators and the environment from radiation. They are not part of the metal detection principle.

Understanding the basic working principles of common security screening equipment helps differentiate their components. DFMDs rely on electromagnetism, while X-ray scanners rely on ionization radiation and require shielding materials like lead.

75. What is the minimum number of escort(s) required for a dangerous priso

What is the minimum number of escort(s) required for a dangerous prisoner on board an aeroplane ?

[amp_mcq option1=”4″ option2=”3″ option3=”2″ option4=”1″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2020

Download PDF Attempt Online

While specific regulations can vary, a common standard or guideline for transporting a dangerous prisoner by air often mandates a minimum of two escorts.

– Security protocols for transporting dangerous or high-risk prisoners are strict due to the potential threat posed during transit.
– A single escort would be insufficient for controlling a dangerous individual, especially in the confined and potentially disruptive environment of an aircraft.
– While more escorts might be required depending on the specific risk assessment, two escorts provide a basic level of security and control, allowing for redundancy and mutual support.

Specific aviation security regulations (e.g., ICAO guidelines, national civil aviation security rules, or prison department protocols) provide detailed requirements for escort ratios based on prisoner classification, flight duration, and other risk factors. A minimum of two escorts for a dangerous prisoner is a commonly cited minimum standard in such guidelines.

77. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Duty of the Indian c

Which one of the following is *not* a Fundamental Duty of the Indian citizens ?

[amp_mcq option1=”To respect the National flag and the National anthem” option2=”To defend the country” option3=”To safeguard all property” option4=”To provide opportunities for education to one’s own child between the age of six and fourteen years” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2020

Download PDF Attempt Online

The Fundamental Duty listed in Article 51A(i) is “to safeguard public property and to abjure violence,” not to safeguard all property (which would include private property).

– Fundamental Duties are enshrined in Part IVA of the Constitution under Article 51A.
– Option A is a Fundamental Duty (51A(a)).
– Option B is a Fundamental Duty (51A(d)).
– Option D is a Fundamental Duty (51A(k), added by 86th Amendment).
– Option C is incorrect because it refers to safeguarding “all property” instead of specifically “public property”.

Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. They are not legally enforceable in the same way as Fundamental Rights but guide citizens’ conduct and the state’s actions.

78. Which of the following Commissions was set up to recommend changes in

Which of the following Commissions was set up to recommend changes in the Centre-State relations ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Verma Commission” option2=”U.C. Banerji Commission” option3=”Kothari Commission” option4=”Sarkaria Commission” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2020

Download PDF Attempt Online

The Sarkaria Commission was specifically set up to examine and recommend changes in Centre-State relations in India.

– The Sarkaria Commission was established in 1983 by the Central Government under the chairmanship of Justice R.S. Sarkaria.
– Its mandate was to review the working of the existing arrangements between the Union and States and recommend appropriate changes within the constitutional framework.
– The Verma Commission dealt with identifying legal provisions for enforcing Fundamental Duties.
– The U.C. Banerji Commission investigated the Godhra train burning incident.
– The Kothari Commission (National Education Commission) dealt with educational sector reforms.

The recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission are a significant reference point for understanding the complexities of federalism in India and have influenced subsequent policy debates and reforms regarding Centre-State relations.

79. Which one of the following is not a duty of the Comptroller and Audi

Which one of the following is *not* a duty of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India ?

[amp_mcq option1=”To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India of each State and Union Territory that has a Legislative Assembly” option2=”To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts of the Union and the States” option3=”To audit and report on all trading, manufacturing, and profit and loss accounts kept by any Department and/or private enterprises” option4=”To audit and report on the receipts and expenditure of all bodies and authorities substantially financed from the Union or State revenues” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2020

Download PDF Attempt Online

Auditing and reporting on all trading, manufacturing, and profit and loss accounts kept by private enterprises is not a general duty of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India.

– The CAG’s primary role is to audit the accounts of the Union and State governments and public sector undertakings.
– Duties A, B, and D are explicitly listed among the CAG’s responsibilities under the Comptroller and Auditor-General’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971. This includes auditing government expenditure from various funds, and the accounts of bodies substantially financed by government revenues.
– The CAG audits government companies (where the government holds a significant stake), but does not generally audit purely private enterprises unless they receive substantial government funding (covered under D). Option C states auditing “any… private enterprises” without qualification, which is incorrect as a general duty.

The CAG is the guardian of the public purse and plays a crucial role in ensuring accountability of the executive to Parliament/State Legislatures by auditing government accounts and reporting on financial propriety.

80. Which of the following best describes a remedy where a person can be c

Which of the following best describes a remedy where a person can be commanded to perform some public duty which s/he has refused to perform ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Mandamus” option2=”Prohibition” option3=”Certiorari” option4=”Quo Warranto” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2020

Download PDF Attempt Online

Mandamus is the writ that commands a public official or body to perform a public duty they are legally required to perform but have refused.

– Mandamus (meaning ‘we command’) is a judicial remedy in the form of an order from a superior court to any government subordinate court, corporation, or public authority to do some specific act which that body is obliged under law to do.
– Prohibition prevents a lower court/tribunal from exceeding jurisdiction.
– Certiorari quashes an order or transfers a case from a lower court/tribunal.
– Quo Warranto questions the legality of a person’s claim to a public office.

Writs are powerful instruments for enforcing fundamental rights and ensuring administrative legality. Mandamus is particularly important for compelling public authorities to perform their statutory duties, thereby upholding the rule of law.