2020

161. Consider the following statements: 1. The President of India can sum

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit.
  • 2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
  • 3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”2 and 3 only” correct=”option3″]

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Statement 1: Article 85(1) of the Constitution states that the President shall from time to time summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit. This grants the President the power to decide the place of the parliamentary session. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2: The Constitution does not mandate three sessions per year. Article 85(1) only requires that “six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session.” This means Parliament must meet at least twice a year. While the practice is to hold three sessions (Budget, Monsoon, Winter), it is not constitutionally mandatory. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3: The Constitution does not specify a minimum number of sitting days for Parliament in a year. The frequency of meetings is primarily determined by the executive’s need for legislative business and the constitutional requirement of not having more than a six-month gap between sessions. Thus, statement 3 is correct.
– The President summons Parliament sessions and determines the place.
– The Constitution mandates Parliament must meet at least twice a year (max 6 months between sessions).
– There is no minimum number of sitting days specified in the Constitution.
The typical three sessions are Budget (Feb-May), Monsoon (July-Sept), and Winter (Nov-Dec). The lack of a mandated minimum number of sitting days has sometimes been criticized as potentially limiting parliamentary scrutiny.

162. Consider the following statements: 1. According to the Constitution

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State.
  • 2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option1″]

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Statement 1: Article 164(4) of the Constitution states that a Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of the Legislature of the State shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a Minister. This implies that a person who is otherwise eligible can be appointed as a minister for a period of up to six months, during which time they must get elected to the legislature. Eligibility to vote is a basic requirement for being a legislator, so a voter is generally eligible to be considered for ministerial post for this period. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2: Section 8 of the Representation of People Act, 1951 deals with disqualification on conviction for certain offences. If a person is convicted of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for two years or more, he shall be disqualified from the date of such conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six years after his release. A sentence of five years imprisonment falls under this category. The disqualification is for the period of sentence plus six years after release, not “permanently”. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.
– A non-legislator can be a minister for a maximum of six months (Article 164(4)).
– Disqualification under RPA, 1951 for conviction and sentence of 2+ years is for the sentence duration plus six years after release, not permanent.
Statement 1 reflects the flexibility in the Indian parliamentary system to allow experts or individuals not currently in the legislature to be appointed as ministers for a short duration, provided they get elected within six months. Statement 2 highlights the specific provisions for criminal disqualification of candidates under the RPA, 1951, which are aimed at keeping persons with criminal backgrounds out of the legislature for a specified period.

163. With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitut

With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  • 1. They shall be enforceable by courts.
  • 2. They shall not be enforceable by any court.
  • 3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the State.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”2 and 3 only” correct=”option4″]

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Part IV of the Constitution of India contains the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs). Article 37, which is part of Part IV, explicitly states that “The provisions contained in this Part shall not be enforceable by any court, but the principles therein laid down are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.”
Statement 1 is incorrect because DPSPs are not enforceable by courts.
Statement 2 is correct because Article 37 states that DPSPs are not enforceable by any court.
Statement 3 is correct because Article 37 states that these principles are fundamental in governance and the State has a duty to apply them in making laws, meaning they influence lawmaking.
Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.
– DPSPs are in Part IV of the Constitution.
– DPSPs are non-justiciable (not enforceable by courts).
– DPSPs are guiding principles for the State in making laws and governance.
While DPSPs are not legally enforceable, courts have sometimes used them in interpreting Fundamental Rights or other constitutional provisions. The judiciary has also emphasized the importance of balancing Fundamental Rights and DPSPs, recognizing that both are essential for the welfare state envisioned by the Constitution. The State is morally and politically bound to implement DPSPs through legislation.

164. “Gold Tranche” (Reserve Tranche) refers to

“Gold Tranche” (Reserve Tranche) refers to

[amp_mcq option1=”a loan system of the World Bank” option2=”one of the operations of a Central Bank” option3=”a credit system granted by WTO to its members” option4=”a credit system granted by IMF to its members” correct=”option4″]

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“Gold Tranche” or “Reserve Tranche” is a term used in the context of the International Monetary Fund (IMF). It refers to the portion of a member country’s quota in the IMF that can be drawn upon at any time without any conditions or economic policy reforms being required. It is essentially a reserve asset or credit line that a member country holds with the IMF, denominated in Special Drawing Rights (SDRs). This system allows member countries to access funds in times of balance of payments needs.
– Gold Tranche or Reserve Tranche is associated with the IMF.
– It represents an unconditional drawing right for member countries.
– It is part of a country’s quota contribution to the IMF.
Each member country contributes a quota to the IMF, paid partly in reserve assets (like SDRs or major currencies) and partly in the country’s own currency. The portion paid in reserve assets plus any borrowing by the IMF from the member country constitutes the reserve tranche position. A country can draw on its reserve tranche at any time it represents that it has a balance of payments need, without having to agree to conditionality.

165. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is

The Preamble to the Constitution of India is

[amp_mcq option1=”a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect” option2=”not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either” option3=”a part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part” option4=”a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts” correct=”option4″]

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The Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution. However, the Preamble itself is not a source of power to the legislature or a prohibition upon the powers of the legislature. It has no legal effect independently of the other parts of the Constitution. It is used as a key to open the minds of the makers of the Constitution and is used to interpret the provisions of the Constitution where the language is ambiguous. Option D correctly captures this status: it is a part of the Constitution but does not have independent legal effect as a source of enforceable rights or limitations on power.
– The Preamble is considered a part of the Constitution.
– It is not directly enforceable in courts.
– It serves as an aid in interpreting the Constitution.
Prior to the Kesavananda Bharati case, in the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court had held that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution. This view was overturned in Kesavananda Bharati case. While it is part of the Constitution, it cannot be used as a source of substantive power or limitation. Its primary value is in understanding the intent and philosophy behind the Constitution.

166. In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteris

In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?

[amp_mcq option1=”An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy” option2=”An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism” option3=”An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth” option4=”An agency for the implementation of public policy” correct=”option4″]

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The correct answer is D) An agency for the implementation of public policy.
Bureaucracy in any modern democratic state, including India, primarily serves as the administrative machinery responsible for putting government policies and laws into effect. It translates the decisions made by the political executive and legislature into action.
While a competent bureaucracy can contribute to political stability and economic growth (Option C), these are outcomes of effective implementation, not the defining characteristic of the agency itself. Options A and B describe potential impacts or roles in specific contexts, but the fundamental, universal characteristic of bureaucracy is its function as the executive arm responsible for policy implementation.
Bureaucracy is structured hierarchically, operates based on rules and procedures, and is typically staffed by trained professionals. Its efficiency is crucial for governance, but it also faces challenges like red tape, corruption, and resistance to change.

167. One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is

One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is

[amp_mcq option1=”the final goal of a stateless society” option2=”class struggle” option3=”abolition of private property” option4=”economic determinism” correct=”option1″]

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The correct answer is A) the final goal of a stateless society.
Despite vast differences in their philosophies, methods, and immediate goals, both Gandhism and Marxism share the ultimate ideal of a stateless society, albeit conceived differently.
Gandhi envisioned ‘Ram Rajya’ or enlightened anarchism, a society where individuals are self-controlled and moral, rendering the state apparatus unnecessary. Marx envisioned communism, a stage reached after socialism, where class distinctions disappear, and the state, seen as an instrument of class oppression, withers away.
Options B and C are points of fundamental difference: Marxism is centered on class struggle and the abolition of private property, while Gandhism advocates for class harmony (trusteeship) and does not seek outright abolition of private property but its use for common good. Option D, economic determinism (the idea that economic relations determine all social phenomena), is a core tenet of Marxism but not of Gandhism, which gives primacy to moral and spiritual factors alongside economic ones.

168. Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India defi

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
  • 2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option2″]

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The correct answer is B) 2 only.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not explicitly define its ‘basic structure’. The concept of ‘basic structure’ was propounded by the Supreme Court in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) to limit the Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution. The Court has, over various judgments, identified certain elements (like federalism, secularism, democracy, judicial review, etc.) as part of the basic structure, but the definition is judicial, not constitutional text.
Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution of India explicitly provides for judicial review. Articles like 13, 32, and 226 empower the higher courts (Supreme Court and High Courts) to review laws and executive actions to ensure they are in conformity with the Constitution, especially the Fundamental Rights. This power is a crucial safeguard for citizens’ liberties and helps preserve the principles upon which the Constitution is based.
Judicial review is considered a fundamental feature of the Indian Constitution. It allows the judiciary to strike down laws or actions that are ultra vires the Constitution. The basic structure doctrine itself is an example of judicial review being used to preserve the fundamental framework of the Constitution.

169. Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of Welfare

Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of Welfare State?

[amp_mcq option1=”Directive Principles of State Policy” option2=”Fundamental Rights” option3=”Preamble” option4=”Seventh Schedule” correct=”option1″]

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The correct answer is A) Directive Principles of State Policy.
The ideal of a Welfare State is enshrined in the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India. These principles are not enforceable by courts but guide the state in making laws and policies.
Articles like 38, 39, 41, 42, 43, 46, etc., lay down various objectives for the state to pursue to promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order based on justice (social, economic, and political), ensuring adequate means of livelihood, fair distribution of wealth, right to work, education, public assistance, just and humane conditions of work, living wage, promotion of educational and economic interests of weaker sections, etc. These principles collectively aim at establishing a welfare state.
While the Preamble speaks of ‘Justice – social, economic and political’ and ‘Equality of status and of opportunity’, setting the broad goals, the DPSP provide concrete guidelines and objectives for the state to move towards realizing these goals and establishing a welfare state. Fundamental Rights primarily focus on negative obligations of the state (restrictions on the state), protecting individual liberties. The Seventh Schedule deals with the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and States.

170. A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which

A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which

[amp_mcq option1=”all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government” option2=”the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it” option3=”the Government is elected by the people and can be removed by them” option4=”the Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed term” correct=”option2″]

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The correct answer is B) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it.
A Parliamentary System of Government is characterized by a close relationship between the executive (Government) and the legislature (Parliament). The executive is formed from within the legislature and remains accountable to it.
Option B correctly describes the core principle of responsible government in a parliamentary system: the Council of Ministers (Government) is collectively responsible to the Lower House of Parliament (e.g., Lok Sabha in India). If the Government loses the confidence of the majority in Parliament, it can be removed through a vote of no-confidence.
Option A is incorrect because a government in a parliamentary system might be a coalition or a single-party majority; it doesn’t necessarily include *all* political parties. Option C describes aspects more typical of a presidential system, where the executive is directly elected by the people. Option D is incorrect because the Government *can* be removed by Parliament before the completion of its term.
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