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151. Consider the following pairs : International agreement/set-up Sub

Consider the following pairs :

International agreement/set-up	Subject
1. Alma-Ata Declaration	— Healthcare of the people
2. Hague Convention	— Biological and chemical weapons
3. Talanoa Dialogue	— Global climate change
4. Under2 Coalition	— Child rights

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”4 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”2, 3 and 4 only” correct=”option3″]

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The Alma-Ata Declaration is correctly matched with ‘Healthcare of the people’, and the Talanoa Dialogue is correctly matched with ‘Global climate change’.

1. **Alma-Ata Declaration (1978):** This was a major international conference held in Alma-Ata (now Almaty, Kazakhstan) which produced the Declaration of Alma-Ata, defining and advocating for primary health care as the key to achieving the goal of “Health For All”. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
2. **Hague Convention:** This term refers to a series of international treaties concluded at The Hague, Netherlands. These include conventions on international private law, laws of war (1899, 1907), cultural property protection, etc. While conventions related to chemical/biological weapons exist (like the Chemical Weapons Convention implemented by OPCW in The Hague), the term “Hague Convention” is not typically used to *specifically* refer to biological and chemical weapons conventions in general. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched.
3. **Talanoa Dialogue:** This was a process under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), launched at COP23 in 2017. It was a facilitative dialogue for countries to assess their progress towards the goals of the Paris Agreement and inform the preparation of their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). It is directly related to global climate change. Pair 3 is correctly matched.
4. **Under2 Coalition:** This is a coalition of subnational governments (states, regions, provinces) committed to reducing greenhouse gas emissions to below 2 tonnes per capita by 2050. It is focused on climate action at the subnational level, not child rights. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched.

The Hague Conventions are a diverse set of international agreements. The Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC, 1993) and the Biological Weapons Convention (BWC, 1972) are the key treaties related to these weapons. The Under2 Coalition is an important initiative demonstrating climate leadership by subnational actors. Child rights are primarily addressed by the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC).

152. In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to wh

In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens ?

Person with an annual income of less than ₹ 1,00,000
Transgender with an annual income of less than ₹ 2,00,000
Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than ₹ 3,00,000
All Senior Citizens

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”3 and 4 only” option3=”2 and 3 only” option4=”1 and 4 only” correct=”option1″]

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Legal Services Authorities in India provide free legal services to persons with an annual income of less than ₹1,00,000 and transgender persons with an annual income of less than ₹2,00,000, among other eligible categories.

The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 aims to provide free and competent legal services to eligible persons. Eligible categories specified under the Act and subsequent rules/amendments include persons belonging to Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes, victims of trafficking or begar, women and children, persons with disabilities, persons in custody, industrial workmen, victims of mass disaster, violence, etc., senior citizens, transgender persons, and persons with an annual income below a prescribed limit. The income limit varies from state to state and is revised periodically; ₹1,00,000 per annum is a plausible limit for the general category in some states. Transgender persons are a specific category, and eligibility often includes an income threshold; ₹2,00,000 is a plausible limit in some states. OBC status alone is not a criterion for free legal aid, although an OBC person could be eligible based on income or other criteria (woman, senior citizen, etc.). While Senior Citizens are an eligible category, the statement “All Senior Citizens” is incorrect as income limits may apply in some states, although often set higher than the general category or exempted for very elderly citizens. Based on the specific statements and typical eligibility criteria, statements 1 and 2 describe plausible eligible categories, while 3 (OBC based) and 4 (“All Senior Citizens” implying no income test) are generally incorrect as presented.

The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) and State Legal Services Authorities (SLSAs) implement the provisions of the Act. The specific income limits are determined by the State Governments, except for the Supreme Court Legal Services Committee, which sets its own limit. The categories listed under Section 12 of the Act ensure that vulnerable sections of society have access to justice. The inclusion of transgender persons as a specific category for legal aid reflects evolving social awareness and policy.

153. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the

Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?

1. Preamble
2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Fundamental Duties

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option4″]

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The Preamble, Directive Principles of State Policy, and Fundamental Duties of the Constitution of India all reflect principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948).

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) proclaims universal human rights and fundamental freedoms. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution, with its ideals of justice (social, economic, and political), liberty, equality, and fraternity, aligns with the spirit and specific provisions of the UDHR. The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) cover socio-economic rights and welfare measures (e.g., right to work, education, social security, adequate standard of living, public health), which are extensively covered in Articles 22-27 of the UDHR. Fundamental Duties (FDs) outline the responsibilities of citizens towards the nation and community (e.g., promote harmony, value composite culture, protect environment). Article 29(1) of the UDHR states, “Everyone has duties to the community in which alone the free and full development of his personality is possible,” acknowledging the connection between duties and rights. While Fundamental Rights are the most direct reflection and legally enforceable counterpart of many civil and political rights in UDHR, the principles of human dignity, equality, social justice, and the necessary environment for realizing rights are reflected across the Preamble, DPSPs, and FDs.

India was a signatory to the UDHR. When formulating the Constitution, the framers were influenced by international developments in human rights. While the Fundamental Rights directly incorporate many civil and political rights from the UDHR, the DPSPs were intended to guide the state towards achieving socio-economic justice, aligning with the economic, social, and cultural rights mentioned in the Declaration. Fundamental Duties, added later, also promote values conducive to a rights-respecting society. Therefore, all three parts reflect the principles of the UDHR in different ways.

154. A constitutional government by definition is a

A constitutional government by definition is a

[amp_mcq option1=”government by legislature” option2=”popular government” option3=”multi-party government” option4=”limited government” correct=”option4″]

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A constitutional government by definition is a limited government.

A constitutional government is one whose powers are defined and limited by a constitution. The constitution sets out the framework of government, specifies the powers and duties of its different branches, and often includes provisions that protect individual rights and freedoms, thereby placing limits on governmental authority.

Options A, B, and C describe potential characteristics of certain types of democratic governments but do not define the fundamental nature of a constitutional government. A government by legislature is specific to parliamentary systems. A popular government implies governance based on the will of the people, which is a characteristic of democracy, but not the defining feature of a constitutional government. A multi-party government is a characteristic of many democratic systems but is not essential for a government to be constitutional. The core concept of a constitutional government is that it is bound and limited by the law embodied in the constitution.

155. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other document

Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include ‘The Macro Economic Framework Statement’. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by

[amp_mcq option1=”Long standing parliamentary convention” option2=”Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India” option3=”Article 113 of the Constitution of India” option4=”Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003″ correct=”option4″]

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The document ‘The Macro Economic Framework Statement’ is presented along with the Budget because it is mandated by the provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003.

The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003, is an Act of the Parliament of India that sets targets for the government to establish financial discipline, reduce the fiscal deficit, and improve macroeconomic management. Section 3(1) of the Act requires the Central Government to lay before both Houses of Parliament certain documents along with the Annual Financial Statement (Budget). These documents include the Macro Economic Framework Statement, the Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement, and the Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement.

Article 112 of the Constitution of India requires the government to present an Annual Financial Statement (the Union Budget). Article 110 deals with Money Bills. Article 113 deals with the procedure in Parliament with respect to estimates. While these articles lay down the constitutional basis for the Budget presentation, the specific requirement to present documents like the Macro Economic Framework Statement alongside the budget originates from statutory requirements, specifically the FRBM Act. Parliamentary convention supports transparency and laying documents before Parliament, but the specific mandate for this document is legal.

156. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by

In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by

[amp_mcq option1=”the Preamble of the Constitution” option2=”a Directive Principle of State Policy” option3=”the Seventh Schedule” option4=”the conventional practice” correct=”option2″]

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The separation of judiciary from the executive in India is mandated by Article 50 of the Constitution. Article 50 states: “The State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.” This provision is contained in Part IV of the Constitution, which deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs). While not legally enforceable, this principle guides the State in its governance and lawmaking.
A) The Preamble: Contains ideals but not specific mandates for separation of powers.
B) A Directive Principle of State Policy: Article 50 is a DPSP.
C) The Seventh Schedule: Deals with the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and States.
D) The conventional practice: While separation is practiced, it is based on the constitutional directive in Article 50 and judicial pronouncements, not merely convention.

– Article 50 mandates the separation of the judiciary from the executive.
– Article 50 is a Directive Principle of State Policy.

Historically, under British rule, there was a considerable overlap between executive and judicial functions, particularly at the district level (e.g., District Magistrate exercising both executive and judicial powers). Article 50 aims to achieve complete separation to ensure the independence of the judiciary, which has been implemented over time by various state governments.

157. Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporat

Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Right against Exploitation” option2=”Right to Freedom” option3=”Right to Constitutional Remedies” option4=”Right to Equality” correct=”option4″]

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Article 17 of the Constitution of India abolishes “Untouchability” and forbids its practice in any form. The enforcement of any disability arising out of “Untouchability” shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law. Article 17 falls under the category of the Right to Equality, which is guaranteed by Articles 14 to 18 in Part III of the Constitution.
A) Right against Exploitation (Articles 23-24): Deals with prohibition of forced labour and child labour.
B) Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22): Deals with fundamental freedoms, protection against arbitrary arrest, etc.
C) Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32): Guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of fundamental rights.
D) Right to Equality (Articles 14-18): Guarantees equality before law, prohibits discrimination, abolishes untouchability, etc.
Thus, protection against untouchability is incorporated within the Right to Equality.

– Article 17 abolishes untouchability.
– Article 17 is part of the Right to Equality (Articles 14-18).

Parliament has enacted laws like the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 (originally Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955) to give effect to Article 17 and prescribe punishments for the practice of untouchability. This right is absolute and not subject to any restrictions.

158. With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Dev

With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct ?

1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc.
2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations.
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year.
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”3 and 4 only” option3=”1, 2 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 4 only” correct=”option4″]

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Statement 1: MPLADS guidelines explicitly state that the focus should be on the creation of durable assets such as buildings, roads, bridges, school buildings, health centres, etc., for public use. This statement is correct.
Statement 2: The guidelines mandate that a certain percentage of the funds should be used for creating assets in areas predominantly inhabited by Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST). Currently, this allocation is 15% for SC concentrated areas and 7.5% for ST concentrated areas. This statement is correct.
Statement 3: MPLADS funds are not sanctioned on a yearly basis only. The entitlement is Rs 5 crore per MP per year. Importantly, unused funds *can* be carried forward to the subsequent years within the term of the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha MP. The statement says unused funds cannot be carried forward, which is incorrect.
Statement 4: MPLADS guidelines require the District Authority to inspect at least 10% of the works completed or under implementation every year to ensure proper execution and quality. This statement is correct.
Therefore, statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct.

– MPLADS funds are for creating durable community assets.
– Specific allocation for SC/ST areas is mandatory.
– Unused funds can be carried forward.
– District authorities must inspect a minimum percentage of works.

MPLADS is a scheme formulated by the Government of India which enables Members of Parliament to recommend developmental work in their constituencies. The scheme aims to create durable community assets based on locally felt needs. The responsibility for implementation lies with the District Authority.

159. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in

Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in

[amp_mcq option1=”the matter of creating new All India Services” option2=”amending the Constitution” option3=”the removal of the government” option4=”making cut motions” correct=”option2″]

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A) Creating new All India Services: This power is vested *exclusively* in the Rajya Sabha by Article 312. The Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a special majority, authorizing Parliament to create new All India Services. Lok Sabha does not have equal power here; it requires Rajya Sabha’s initiation.
B) Amending the Constitution: A Bill to amend the Constitution can be introduced in either House of Parliament. It must be passed by each House by a special majority (majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting). Both Houses have equal powers in the process of constitutional amendment.
C) The removal of the government: The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha (Article 75(3)). A no-confidence motion, which leads to the removal of the government, can only be moved and voted upon in the Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha does not have this power.
D) Making cut motions: Cut motions are part of the budgetary process and are specific to the Lok Sabha. Money Bills, including appropriation bills related to budget demands, originate in the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha has limited powers, primarily advisory, regarding Money Bills (Article 109).
Therefore, Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in amending the Constitution.

– Rajya Sabha has exclusive power over creating All India Services (Article 312).
– Both Houses have equal powers in the process of Constitutional Amendment (Article 368).
– The government is responsible only to the Lok Sabha.
– Financial matters, including budget and cut motions, are primarily within the domain of the Lok Sabha.

The unequal powers of the two Houses reflect the federal nature (Rajya Sabha represents states, given exclusive power over AIS affecting states) and the principle of responsible government (Lok Sabha represents the people directly and controls the executive).

160. Consider the following statements: 1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be sto

Consider the following statements:

1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.
2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data.
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 4 only” option2=”2 and 4 only” option3=”3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3 only” correct=”option2″]

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UPSC IAS – 2020

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Statement 1: According to UIDAI regulations (Aadhaar Authentication Regulations, 2016), authentication transaction logs are retained for 5 years, not 3 months. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2: Section 29 of the Aadhaar Act, 2016 restricts the sharing of core biometric information. Identity information can be shared only with consent for specific purposes or under court order. The Supreme Court judgment in Puttaswamy case upheld the restrictive nature of the Act regarding data sharing with private entities, emphasizing minimal data collection and use. While private entities can act as Authentication User Agencies (AUAs) or e-KYC User Agencies (KUAs), direct and general “sharing of Aadhaar data” with private corporations is prohibited. Thus, the statement that the State cannot enter into *any* contract for sharing of *Aadhaar data* (interpreted as general data sharing beyond permitted authentication/KYC processes under strict rules) with private corporations aligns with the law’s intent and judgment, making this statement likely correct in context.
Statement 3: The Supreme Court judgment held that Aadhaar cannot be made mandatory for services unless they are benefits, subsidies, or services funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India (Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act). Insurance products are generally not funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Therefore, making Aadhaar mandatory for obtaining insurance products was ruled unconstitutional by the SC. Thus, statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 4: The Supreme Court upheld Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act, which mandates Aadhaar for receiving subsidies, benefits, or services funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Thus, statement 4 is correct.
Based on this analysis, statements 2 and 4 are correct, while 1 and 3 are incorrect.

– Authentication logs are stored for 5 years.
– Sharing of Aadhaar data, especially core biometrics, with private entities is heavily restricted.
– Aadhaar cannot be mandatory for services not funded by the Consolidated Fund of India (like insurance).
– Aadhaar can be mandatory for benefits/services funded by the Consolidated Fund of India.

The Supreme Court’s judgment on Aadhaar in the Puttaswamy case (2018) significantly curtailed the mandatory use of Aadhaar, limiting it primarily to schemes receiving funds from the Consolidated Fund of India. It also reinforced data protection principles and restrictions on sharing.