2019 Archives

41. As per the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, opinion of exp

As per the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, opinion of experts is relevant when it is related to

foreign law or of science or of art or as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions

law or medical science

finger impressions or art or medical science

None of the above

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019

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Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with the opinion of experts. It states that when the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of foreign law or of science or art, or as to the identity of handwriting or finger impressions, the opinions upon that point of persons specially skilled in such foreign law, science or art, or in questions as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions are relevant facts. Option A lists all these specific areas where expert opinion is considered relevant under this section.

– Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 makes the opinions of experts relevant.
– The specified fields for expert opinion relevance are foreign law, science, art, identity of handwriting, and identity of finger impressions.

Options B and C are incomplete or partially correct but do not cover the full scope mentioned in Section 45. Option B mentions law (without specifying foreign law) and medical science (which falls under science). Option C mentions finger impressions, art, and medical science (science). Only option A comprehensively covers all the categories explicitly listed in Section 45.

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42. A is a driver of a van which carries cash to refill ATMs of a bank. B

A is a driver of a van which carries cash to refill ATMs of a bank. B is security personnel and authorized to refill that cash in ATMs. At a red light when B steps down to ease himself, A on the pretext of taking turn, runs away with the cash van. At which of the following points is the commission of theft completed?

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When A unloaded the cash from the van

When A turns the vehicle in a direction other than the pre-determined route

When B steps down from his van

None of the above

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This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019

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The commission of theft is completed at the moment the movable property is taken out of the possession of another person with dishonest intention. In this scenario, A is the driver of the van carrying cash, which is in the legal possession of the bank through its personnel (B). When A, with the dishonest intention of stealing the cash, turns the vehicle away from the predetermined route, he is taking the van (and the cash inside) out of the lawful possession of the bank/B without their consent. This movement of the vehicle constitutes the ‘taking’ element of theft.

– Theft is defined under Section 378 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) as the dishonest taking of movable property out of the possession of any person without that person’s consent.
– The ‘taking’ element involves the movement of the property.
– In this case, the van carrying cash is the movable property.
– The dishonest intention is formed when A decides to run away with the van.
– The theft is complete when A performs the first act of moving the van with this dishonest intention, which is turning the vehicle away from its route.

Options A and C are incorrect. Unloading the cash (A) happens after the theft is complete. B stepping down (C) merely provides the opportunity; it is A’s subsequent action of moving the van dishonestly that constitutes the theft. Option D is incorrect because the commission of theft is completed at a specific point.

43. Who among the following can apply to the High Court to set aside a dec

Who among the following can apply to the High Court to set aside a declaration of State Government under Section 95 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to forfeit any newspaper?

Editor of the newspaper

Publishing house of the newspaper

Any employee of the newspaper

Any person having any interest in that newspaper

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This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019

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Section 95(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973 explicitly states that “Any person having any interest in any such newspaper, book or document” in respect of which a declaration of forfeiture has been made under Section 95(1) may apply to the High Court to set aside such declaration. This wording encompasses individuals or entities with a proprietary, financial, or other significant legal interest in the publication.

– Section 95 of CrPC allows the State Government to declare certain publications forfeited for containing seditious matter or matter promoting enmity between different groups, etc.
– Section 95(2) provides a legal remedy for challenging this forfeiture order in the High Court.
– The right to apply is granted to “Any person having any interest” in the publication.
– This includes the editor, publisher, owner, or anyone else with a direct stake in the newspaper or publication.

This provision serves as a safeguard against arbitrary state action by allowing affected parties to seek judicial review of the forfeiture order. The High Court examines the content of the publication to determine if it falls within the prohibited categories.

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44. As per the doctrine of ‘added peril’, as applied to the Workmen’s Comp

As per the doctrine of ‘added peril’, as applied to the Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923, a workman cannot hold his employer liable for the risk if at the time of accident the employee

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undertakes to do something which the employee is not ordinarily required to do and involves extra danger

remains absent from place where he/she is supposed to work

is under the influence of alcohol on duty

is working on an overtime assignment

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This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019

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The doctrine of ‘added peril’ under the Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923 (now Employee’s Compensation Act, 1923) states that if a workman, while performing their duty, introduces a new risk or danger which is not part of their ordinary employment, and an accident occurs due to this added risk, the employer is generally not held liable for compensation. Option A accurately describes this: the employee undertakes something not ordinarily required, involving extra danger. Options B, C, and D might relate to potential defenses or considerations in a compensation claim (like being outside the scope of employment, misconduct, or working hours), but they do not define the doctrine of ‘added peril’.

– The doctrine applies when a workman increases the risk of injury by doing something outside the scope of their normal duties or in a manner not required or expected.
– The added peril must be the direct cause of the accident.
– If the employer authorized or acquiesced in the activity, the doctrine may not apply.

The Employee’s Compensation Act, 1923 provides for compensation to workmen (now employees) and their dependents in case of injury or death caused by an accident arising out of and in the course of employment. The doctrine of added peril is a common law concept applied in the interpretation of “arising out of employment”.

45. Which of the following are included under the Employees’ Provident Fun

Which of the following are included under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952?

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

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1. Employees’ Provident Fund
2. Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme
3. Employees’ Permanent Total Disablement Pension
4. Pension of the Employees’ Widows

2, 3 and 4 only

1 and 4 only

1, 2 and 3 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019

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The Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, is an umbrella Act that empowers the government to frame various schemes for the welfare of employees. The schemes framed under this Act include:
1. The Employees’ Provident Fund Scheme (EPF)
2. The Employees’ Pension Scheme (EPS), 1995 (which provides for various pensions, including disablement and widow pensions)
3. The Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme (EDLI)
Therefore, the benefits like Employees’ Permanent Total Disablement Pension (which is a type of disablement pension under EPS) and Pension of the Employees’ Widows (also under EPS) are provided through schemes established under the 1952 Act. All four listed items are either the main schemes or types of benefits provided under the schemes framed by the Act.

– The EPF & MP Act, 1952 is the parent Act for three main schemes: EPF, EPS, and EDLI.
– The Employees’ Pension Scheme (EPS) provides for various forms of pension, including superannuation pension, disability pension, widow pension, and children pension.
– The Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme (EDLI) provides life insurance cover.

The Act applies to establishments employing 20 or more persons and engaged in any of the industries specified in Schedule I or notified by the Central Government.

46. Which one of the following substances is not a source of ‘A’ class

Which one of the following substances is not a source of ‘A’ class fire?

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Wood

Stainless steel

Paper

Jute

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This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019

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‘A’ class fires involve ordinary combustible materials such as wood, paper, cloth, rubber, and certain plastics. These materials burn by forming embers. Stainless steel (B) is a metal alloy known for its resistance to rust and corrosion, and it is highly fire-resistant. It does not act as a fuel source for a Class A fire (or typically any other fire class, except possibly in highly specialized, extreme conditions involving metal fires – Class D – which stainless steel isn’t part of in standard classifications). Wood (A), Paper (C), and Jute (D) are all common examples of Class A combustible materials.

– **Class A fires:** Solid combustibles (wood, paper, textiles).
– **Class B fires:** Flammable liquids and gases.
– **Class C fires:** Energized electrical equipment (note: US standard, in some other systems it’s combustible gases).
– **Class D fires:** Combustible metals (magnesium, titanium, sodium, potassium).
– **Class K/F fires:** Cooking oils and fats.
– Stainless steel is a non-combustible material.

Different types of fire extinguishers are rated for different classes of fires. For Class A fires, water-based extinguishers or dry chemical extinguishers are often used.

47. At the time of induction of CISF in an undertaking, the concerned unde

At the time of induction of CISF in an undertaking, the concerned undertaking is required to deposit

an amount equal to six months monthly billing of CISF

an amount equal to three months monthly billing of CISF

an amount equal to two months monthly billing of CISF

an amount equal to one month monthly billing of CISF

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This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019

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As per the administrative and financial procedures for CISF deployment, undertakings requesting CISF security are required to deposit an amount equal to three months’ estimated monthly billing of CISF charges as an advance payment at the time of induction. This advance is adjusted against future bills. This is a standard administrative requirement to ensure timely payment for the services rendered by the force.

– CISF is a cost-reimbursable force for public sector undertakings and private entities.
– The charges cover the salary and allowances of the deployed personnel, administrative overheads, and other related costs.
– An initial advance payment is required upon deployment to cover initial expenses and serve as a security deposit.
– The standard required advance is typically three months’ billing.

The terms and conditions for CISF deployment, including the billing cycle and advance payment requirements, are governed by specific rules and agreements between the Ministry of Home Affairs (under which CISF functions) and the concerned undertaking.

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48. Stand Alone XBlS machines at airports commonly work on the principle

Stand Alone XBlS machines at airports commonly work on the principle of

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ion mobility spectrometry

gas chromatography

backscatter technology

electromagnetic radiation

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This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019

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XBIS (X-ray Baggage Inspection Systems) machines work by using X-rays to create images of the contents of luggage. While standard systems use transmission X-ray technology, advanced “stand-alone” machines, particularly for security screening, often incorporate backscatter technology. Backscatter X-rays provide a different view of the object’s composition and density compared to transmission images, helping to detect organic materials and distinguish layers. Ion mobility spectrometry (A) and gas chromatography (B) are used for trace detection of substances (like explosives or narcotics), not for imaging the bulk contents of baggage. Electromagnetic radiation (D) is too broad a term as X-rays are one form of electromagnetic radiation, but ‘backscatter technology’ describes a specific principle used in X-ray imaging for this purpose.

– XBIS machines use X-rays to scan baggage.
– Transmission X-ray imaging passes X-rays through the object and detects those that penetrate.
– Backscatter X-ray imaging detects the X-rays that are scattered back towards the source, providing information about the surface and composition of the object.
– Many modern security X-ray scanners use both transmission and backscatter techniques for enhanced detection.

Backscatter technology is particularly effective at highlighting organic materials like explosives, drugs, and food, which can be difficult to discern in standard transmission images.

49. During a fire in a building, which one of the following is not require

During a fire in a building, which one of the following is not required to be done by the CISF?

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To rescue persons trapped inside the building

To stop spread of fire

To call the fire brigade and help the approach area clear

To start registering FIRs at once

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019

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During a fire incident, the primary responsibilities of security personnel like CISF typically involve immediate life safety and containment measures. This includes rescuing persons trapped (A), attempting to stop the spread of fire if possible and safe (B), and facilitating the work of professional firefighters by calling the fire brigade and clearing access routes (C). Registering FIRs (First Information Reports) is a formal step usually undertaken by the police after the immediate emergency is handled and preliminary assessment of the incident is made, especially if foul play is suspected. It is not an immediate action required “at once” by CISF during an active fire.

– CISF’s role during emergencies like fire is focused on initial response: securing the area, assisting personnel, alerting professional emergency services, and potentially aiding in containment if trained and equipped.
– Registering an FIR is a function of the police (station house officer) based on information received about a cognizable offense. While CISF might report the incident to the police, they do not typically register the FIR themselves in the immediate chaos of an active fire.

CISF has dedicated fire wings in many large industrial undertakings and airports, equipped with specialized firefighting equipment and trained personnel. Their role is critical in the initial response phase before municipal fire services arrive.

50. Which one of the following legal powers has been conferred on CISF dep

Which one of the following legal powers has been conferred on CISF deployed at an undertaking which has been declared as a ‘prohibited place’?

Power of arrest without any order from Magistrate and without a warrant

Power of arrest only with an order from Magistrate

Power of arrest along with power to grant bail in suitable cases

Power of arrest and power to investigate

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This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019

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The CISF Act, 1968, along with specific notifications declaring certain undertakings/areas as ‘prohibited places’ (often under acts like the Official Secrets Act), grants CISF personnel deployed there specific legal powers. For certain offenses committed within these prohibited areas, CISF personnel may be empowered to arrest without an order from a Magistrate and without a warrant. This enhanced power is crucial for maintaining security in sensitive or vital installations.

– CISF personnel have powers of search, seizure, and arrest, which vary depending on whether they are deployed under the CISF Act alone or also in connection with other laws applicable to the guarded premises (like Official Secrets Act for prohibited places).
– Deployment in a declared ‘prohibited place’ often involves specific gazette notifications conferring enhanced powers necessary for the security of the installation.
– The power of arrest without warrant is a key enhanced power granted in such sensitive areas to deal with immediate threats or offenses.

The extent of CISF’s legal powers is determined by the CISF Act, 1968, and any specific notifications or arrangements pertaining to the protected establishment, including its status as a ‘prohibited place’. This often includes treating CISF personnel as ‘police officers’ for specific purposes within the protected area.

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