2019

161. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept

In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?

[amp_mcq option1=”Protection against the tyranny of political rulers” option2=”Absence of restraint” option3=”Opportunity to do whatever one likes” option4=”Opportunity to develop oneself fully” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2019
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is D) Opportunity to develop oneself fully.
Liberty, in a comprehensive political sense, is not merely the absence of external constraints (negative liberty) or permission to do anything one desires (which would lead to chaos). The most appropriate definition encompasses the positive conception of liberty, which is the provision of conditions and opportunities necessary for individuals to realize their full potential and capabilities.
Option A, protection against tyranny, is a crucial aspect of political liberty but is a means to secure liberty, not the full definition itself. Option B, absence of restraint, aligns with negative liberty but overlooks the societal conditions required for meaningful freedom. Option C, opportunity to do whatever one likes, is an extreme view that is incompatible with a functioning society as it would allow individuals to infringe upon the liberty of others. Positive liberty (Option D) emphasizes self-realization and the ability to act rather than just the absence of restrictions.

162. Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the

Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?

[amp_mcq option1=”Spices” option2=”Fresh fruits” option3=”Pulses” option4=”Vegetable oils” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2019
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is D. Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, vegetable oils account for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years.
India is a major consumer of edible oils but domestic production does not meet the demand, leading to significant imports, particularly of palm oil, soybean oil, and sunflower oil. These imports consistently account for the largest share by value among agricultural commodities. While India also imports pulses, fresh fruits, and spices, the value of vegetable oil imports is typically much higher.
The large import bill for vegetable oils has implications for India’s trade balance and food security. The government has been promoting schemes to increase domestic oilseed production to reduce reliance on imports.

163. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last

With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:

  • 1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
  • 2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
  • 3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
  • 4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 3 only” option2=”2, 3 and 4 only” option3=”2 and 4 only” option4=”1, 2, 3 and 4″ correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2019
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is A, as statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Statement 1 is correct. Rice is the principal Kharif crop in India and is grown in the largest area among all crops during the Kharif season.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The area under the cultivation of oilseeds (such as soybean, groundnut, etc., which are significant Kharif crops) in India is substantially larger than the area under Jowar cultivation, especially considering only the Kharif season for Jowar.
Statement 3 is correct. The area under cotton cultivation in India is significantly more than the area under sugarcane cultivation. While sugarcane is also grown, its total area is less than that of cotton.
Statement 4 is incorrect. The area under sugarcane cultivation in India has not steadily decreased over the last five years; it has generally remained stable or shown some increase.
Understanding the relative cultivation areas of major crops in India is important for agricultural economics and geography. Kharif crops are sown with the onset of the monsoon (June-July) and harvested in September-October. Major Kharif crops include Rice, Jowar, Bajra, Maize, Cotton, Jute, Sugarcane, Groundnut, Soybean, and Pulses (like Arhar). Sugarcane is a tropical plant and is often grown as a multi-seasonal crop.

164. Consider the following statements: 1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP)

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.
  • 2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2019
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is A, as statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of a common basket of goods and services in different countries. The idea is to determine how much currency ‘A’ is needed in country ‘A’ to buy the same basket of goods that currency ‘B’ buys in country ‘B’. The PPP exchange rate is the rate at which the currency of one country would have to be converted into that of another country to buy the same amount of goods and services in each country.
Statement 2 is incorrect. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the third largest economy in the world, after China and the United States. This ranking has been consistent in data provided by international bodies like the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank in recent years.
PPP is considered a more accurate measure of comparing living standards and the size of economies across countries than using nominal GDP converted at market exchange rates, because it accounts for differences in the cost of living. Market exchange rates can be volatile and influenced by financial flows, whereas PPP rates reflect the actual purchasing power of a currency within its domestic economy.

165. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following st

With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

  • 1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
  • 2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2019
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is D, as neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Under the Constitution of India, High Courts have the power of judicial review (Articles 226 and 227). This power includes the jurisdiction to examine and, if found unconstitutional, declare any law, including central laws, to be constitutionally invalid, within their territorial jurisdiction. This power is part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review over constitutional amendments. The landmark Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) established the “Basic Structure Doctrine,” which holds that Parliament cannot amend the Constitution in a way that alters its basic structure. The Supreme Court can therefore call into question and strike down a constitutional amendment if it violates the basic structure of the Constitution.
The power of judicial review of both High Courts and the Supreme Court serves as a crucial check on the legislative and executive branches, upholding the supremacy of the Constitution and protecting fundamental rights.

166. In the context of any country, which one of the following would be con

In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?

[amp_mcq option1=”The proportion of literates in the population” option2=”The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines” option3=”The size of population in the working age group” option4=”The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2019
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is D. The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society would be considered as part of its social capital.
Social capital refers to the collective value of all social networks (who people know) and the inclinations that arise from these networks to do things for each other (norms of reciprocity). It involves the quality of social interactions, networks, and shared norms, values, and trust that facilitate cooperation and collective action for mutual benefit.
Option A (proportion of literates) relates to human capital (education and skills).
Option B (stock of buildings, infrastructure, machines) relates to physical capital.
Option C (size of working age population) is a demographic factor related to the potential labor force, which contributes to human capital.
Option D (level of mutual trust and harmony in the society) directly captures the essence of social relationships, norms, and trust that constitute social capital. High levels of trust and harmony can reduce transaction costs, facilitate cooperation, and improve overall societal well-being and economic performance.
Social capital is often seen as a key factor in economic development and effective governance. It is built through various social interactions, institutions, and cultural factors within a community or society.

167. The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is M

The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus

[amp_mcq option1=”transportation cost only” option2=”interest cost only” option3=”procurement incidentals and distribution cost” option4=”procurement incidentals and charges for godowns” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2019
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is C. The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India includes Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus procurement incidentals and distribution cost.
The economic cost for FCI is the total cost incurred in the process of procurement, storage, and distribution of food grains under the public distribution system (PDS) and other welfare schemes. It comprises two main components:
1. Acquisition Cost: This is the price paid to the farmers (MSP + bonus, if any).
2. Incidentals and Distribution Costs: These are expenses incurred beyond the acquisition cost.
– Procurement Incidentals include expenses incurred during procurement up to the point of storage, such as mandi charges, handling charges, transportation from mandi to depot, interest on borrowed capital for procurement, and storage losses.
– Distribution Costs include expenses incurred from the point of storage onwards, such as freight charges for inter-state movement, handling charges at distribution centres, storage losses during distribution, administrative costs, and retailers’ margins (in some cases).
Option C correctly encapsulates these additional costs as “procurement incidentals and distribution cost”.
The economic cost is higher than the MSP and is a key factor in determining the issue price of food grains sold through the PDS, although the issue prices (Central Issue Price) are often kept significantly lower than the economic cost, leading to food subsidies borne by the government.

168. In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an impo

In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?

[amp_mcq option1=”The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998″ option2=”The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999″ option3=”The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011″ option4=”The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2019
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is C. ‘Extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in the e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011.
Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) is a policy approach under which producers are given a significant responsibility for the post-consumer stage of their products’ life cycle. In India, the concept of EPR was first formally introduced and elaborated in the e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011. These rules made producers responsible for the collection and channelization of e-waste generated from the ‘end-of-life’ of their products. Subsequent rules, like the Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016, also adopted the EPR principle for plastic waste.
The e-Waste (Management) Rules were further amended in 2016 and 2018, strengthening the provisions for EPR, including setting collection targets for producers. The concept aims to internalize the environmental costs associated with the disposal of goods into the product price, promoting environmentally sound waste management and encouraging product design changes that reduce environmental impact.

169. Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s Ease

Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business Index?

[amp_mcq option1=”Maintenance of law and order” option2=”Paying taxes” option3=”Registering property” option4=”Dealing with construction permits” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2019
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is A, as ‘Maintenance of law and order’ is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business Index.
The World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business index measures aspects of business regulation that are relevant to a domestic firm throughout its life cycle. It assesses factors such as starting a business, dealing with construction permits, getting electricity, registering property, getting credit, protecting minority investors, paying taxes, trading across borders, enforcing contracts, and resolving insolvency.
Statements B, C, and D refer to ‘Paying taxes’, ‘Registering property’, and ‘Dealing with construction permits’, respectively, all of which are explicit sub-indices used in the calculation of the Ease of Doing Business ranking.
‘Maintenance of law and order’, while crucial for a business environment, is a broader governance aspect and is not a specific, measured indicator within the defined scope of the Ease of Doing Business report.
The Ease of Doing Business report was published annually by the World Bank Group from 2003 to 2020. In 2021, the World Bank Group discontinued the report due to concerns about data integrity. While the report is no longer published, the components tested in this question were standard features of the index during its publication period.

170. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Materni

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?

  • 1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
  • 2. Enterprises with crèches must allow the mother minimum six crèche visits daily.
  • 3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2019
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is C, as only statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017 increased the period of paid maternity leave from 12 weeks to 26 weeks. This leave can be taken up to 8 weeks before the expected date of delivery and the remaining period after delivery. It is not three months pre and three months post-delivery.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act mandates that every establishment with fifty or more employees shall have the facility of a crèche. It also stipulates that the employer shall allow the mother minimum four visits a day to the crèche, which includes the interval for rest allowed to her. It is four visits, not six.
Statement 3 is correct. The Act specifies that a woman with two or more surviving children shall be entitled to a reduced maternity benefit of twelve weeks, of which not more than six weeks shall precede the date of her expected delivery. This means women with two children get reduced entitlements compared to those with one child.
The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017 also introduced the option for women who adopt a child below the age of three months or a commissioning mother (who uses a surrogate to bear a child) to take 12 weeks of maternity leave from the date the child is handed over to them. It also requires employers to inform women employees about their maternity benefits.
Page 1Page 2Page 3Page 4Page 5