2019-20

21. With regard to Goods and Services Tax in the course of inter-State tra

With regard to Goods and Services Tax in the course of inter-State trade or commerce, which one of the following statements is not correct?

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It is levied by the Union.
It is levied and collected by the Union.
It is not apportioned between the Union and States.
Goods imported are treated to be supply of goods in the course of inter-State trade.
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The incorrect statement is C) It is not apportioned between the Union and States.
Article 269A of the Constitution deals with Goods and Services tax on supplies in the course of inter-State trade or commerce. It clearly states that GST on inter-state supplies shall be levied and collected by the Government of India, but the tax *shall be apportioned* between the Union and the States in the manner provided by Parliament by law on the recommendations of the Goods and Services Tax Council. Statements A and B are correct as per Article 269A. Statement D is also correct; under the IGST Act, goods imported into India are deemed to be inter-state supplies and are subject to IGST.
The Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) is levied on inter-State supplies of goods and services and also on imports and exports. The revenue collected from IGST is shared between the Centre and the States based on the recommendations of the GST Council, as per the formula prescribed by Parliament. This sharing mechanism ensures that the destination state receives a share of the tax.

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22. The provisions for setting up Inter-State Councils are mentioned in Ar

The provisions for setting up Inter-State Councils are mentioned in Article 263 of the Constitution of India. Which among the following is not the correct composition of member States in case of Eastern Zonal Council?

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Bihar
Jharkhand
West Bengal
Chhattisgarh
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The correct answer is D) Chhattisgarh. Chhattisgarh is not a member of the Eastern Zonal Council.
Zonal Councils are statutory bodies established by the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. There are five Zonal Councils: Northern, Central, Eastern, Western, and Southern. The Eastern Zonal Council comprises the states of Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha, and West Bengal. Chhattisgarh is part of the Central Zonal Council, along with Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and Madhya Pradesh. Therefore, Chhattisgarh is not a member of the Eastern Zonal Council.
The Zonal Councils aim to promote inter-state cooperation and coordination. The Union Home Minister is the common chairman of all five Zonal Councils. Each Chief Minister of the member states serves as the Vice-Chairman by rotation for one year. Each state is represented by the Chief Minister and two other ministers, and the administrator in case of Union Territories.

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23. Which among the following pairs of rivers and regions is/are not corre

Which among the following pairs of rivers and regions is/are not correctly matched?

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  • 1. Indus river : Himalayan region
  • 2. Godavari river : Deccan region
  • 3. Luni river : Coastal region

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1 only
1 and 2 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3
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The Luni river flows through the inland arid and semi-arid regions of Rajasthan and Gujarat, eventually draining into the Rann of Kutch, which is a marshy area near the coast, but the river itself is not characteristic of a typical coastal river or region. The Indus river system originates in the Himalayas and flows through the Himalayan region, and the Godavari river is a major river of the Deccan Plateau. Therefore, only the Luni river is not correctly matched with the Coastal region.
– Pair 1 (Indus river : Himalayan region) is correctly matched as the Indus originates in the Himalayas and flows through the region.
– Pair 2 (Godavari river : Deccan region) is correctly matched as the Godavari is a major river flowing across the Deccan Plateau.
– Pair 3 (Luni river : Coastal region) is incorrectly matched as the Luni is primarily an inland river flowing through arid regions, not a coastal region.
– The question asks for the pair(s) that are *not* correctly matched.
The Luni is the largest salt-water river in India. It originates in the Aravalli Range near Ajmer and flows southwest. It is an ephemeral river, drying up before reaching the sea, getting lost in the sands of the Rann of Kutch. Its course is entirely inland, except for its terminus near the Rann.

24. Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India pres

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. The Constitution of India prescribes limits of territorial waters and maritime zones of India.
  • 2. The resources of the exclusive zone of India vest in the Union of India.
  • 3. The Constitution of India prescribes the limits of the exclusive economic zone of India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

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1 only
2 and 3
1 and 3
2 only
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The Constitution of India does not define the limits of India’s territorial waters, continental shelf, or Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ). These limits are defined by legislation enacted by Parliament in accordance with international law. However, Article 297 of the Constitution states that all resources within India’s maritime zones vest in the Union of India. Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.
– Statement 1 is incorrect; the Constitution does not define maritime zone limits.
– Statement 3 is incorrect; the Constitution does not define the limits of the EEZ.
– Statement 2 is correct; Article 297 of the Constitution vests resources within the territorial waters, continental shelf, and EEZ in the Union.
– The limits of India’s maritime zones are determined by the Territorial Waters, Continental Shelf, Exclusive Economic Zone and Other Maritime Zones Act, 1976.
India has sovereign rights over its territorial waters (up to 12 nautical miles from the baseline) and sovereign rights for exploring and exploiting resources in its continental shelf and Exclusive Economic Zone (up to 200 nautical miles from the baseline). These rights and the limits of these zones are regulated by parliamentary law consistent with the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).

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25. Consider the following statements : The ‘pleasure’ doctrine with regar

Consider the following statements :
The ‘pleasure’ doctrine with regard to service of the civil servants under the Constitution of India is

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  • 1. absolute
  • 2. subject to Article 309
  • 3. subject to Article 311

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
1 and 2
3
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The pleasure doctrine, stated in Article 310 of the Constitution, signifies that civil servants hold office during the pleasure of the President or Governor, as the case may be. However, this power is not absolute and is subject to certain constitutional limitations, most significantly those provided under Article 311, which lays down procedural safeguards against arbitrary dismissal, removal, or reduction in rank.
– Statement 1 is incorrect; the pleasure doctrine under the Indian Constitution is not absolute.
– Statement 3 is correct; Article 310 is expressly made subject to the provisions of Article 311, which provides civil servants with safeguards like the right to an inquiry and a reasonable opportunity of showing cause before being dismissed, removed, or reduced in rank.
– Statement 2 is incorrect; while Article 309 relates to rules governing conditions of service, the pleasure doctrine’s limitations stem primarily from Article 311, which overrides rules made under Article 309 if they conflict with the protections under 311.
Article 310(1) states: “Except as expressly provided by this Constitution, every person who is a member of a defence service or of a civil service of the Union or of an all-India service or holds any post connected with defence or any civil post under the Union holds office during the pleasure of the President, and every person who is a member of a civil service of a State or holds any civil post under a State holds office during the pleasure of the Governor of the State.” Article 310(2) mentions contractual appointments being an exception. Article 311 provides the procedural restrictions on the exercise of this pleasure.

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26. The jurisdiction of the courts has been ousted in which one of the fol

The jurisdiction of the courts has been ousted in which one of the following matters?

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Any law dealing with delimitation of constituencies with regard to election to municipalities
Reservations made for various categories for elections in municipalities
Disqualification for membership of a Panchayat
Election of members of the board in a cooperative society
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Article 243ZG of the Constitution, relating to Municipalities, explicitly bars interference by courts in electoral matters, stating that the validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies or the allotment of seats to such constituencies cannot be called into question in any court. This represents a specific ouster of court jurisdiction.
– Article 243ZG(a) constitutionally ousts the jurisdiction of courts regarding the validity of laws related to the delimitation of constituencies and allotment of seats for municipalities.
– While election disputes can be raised through an election petition to a designated authority (as per 243ZG(b)), challenging the delimitation law itself in court is barred.
– Reservations (B) as a concept might be challenged on constitutional grounds, but the allotment of seats based on delimitation and reservation is covered by the ouster in 243ZG(a).
– Disqualification for Panchayat membership (C) is dealt with by state law and election petitions, with court intervention limited but not a complete constitutional ouster of the law itself like delimitation.
– Disputes in cooperative societies (D) are governed by state law, often through tribunals or registrars, with limited but not fully ousted court jurisdiction, and it’s not a constitutional ouster.
Similar provisions barring court interference in electoral matters for Panchayats exist in Article 243O of the Constitution. These articles aim to prevent delays and disruptions in local body elections by channeling specific disputes to designated authorities and barring challenges to the fundamental processes of delimitation and seat allotment in courts.

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27. Consider the following statements: A High Court requires prior approva

Consider the following statements:
A High Court requires prior approval of the Governor while making certain rules

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  • settling tables of fee to advocates and pleaders practising before district courts
  • calling returns from district courts
  • which include rules for super-intendence of the district courts

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

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1 only
1 and 2
2 only
3
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Based on the constitutional provisions (Article 227(3) and Article 235), the High Court’s rules for regulating the practice and proceedings of subordinate courts, prescribing forms, settling fees, and for general administrative control and superintendence require the previous approval of the Governor of the state. Statements 1 and 2 describe types of rules that fall under this requirement. Rules for settling tables of fee (1) are explicitly mentioned in Article 227(3). Rules for calling returns (2) fall under the administrative superintendence/control power (Article 235 read with Article 227), which requires rules made by the High Court to be approved by the Governor. Statement 3, referring to “rules for super-intendence”, is a broad category that also requires approval. However, given the provided options, option B (1 and 2) is the most plausible intended answer, although constitutionally, rules for superintendence (3) also require approval, indicating a potential flaw in the question or options.
– Article 227(3) provides that rules made by the High Court for regulating practice and proceedings, prescribing forms, and settling fees for subordinate courts require the Governor’s approval. Statement 1 (settling fees) is explicitly covered.
– Rules made by the High Court under Article 235 for the administrative control of subordinate courts (which would include rules for administrative procedures like calling returns, Statement 2) also require the Governor’s approval.
– Rules for general superintendence (Statement 3), encompassing both administrative and procedural aspects, also require approval under Article 227 and 235.
– All three statements describe types of rules requiring Governor’s approval. Since “1, 2 and 3” is not an option, and options B (1 and 2) and D (3) are mutually exclusive and incomplete, there appears to be an error in the question or options. Assuming the question intends to distinguish between specific examples (1 and 2) and the general power (3), and forcing a choice from the provided options, B (1 and 2) might be the intended answer, focusing on specific aspects rather than the broad category, though this is legally contestable.
Article 227 empowers the High Court with superintendence over all courts and tribunals throughout the territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction. Article 235 gives the High Court control over district courts and courts subordinate thereto, including posting, promotion, and leave, as well as disciplinary matters. Rules for the efficient functioning and administration of subordinate courts are made by the High Court, but require Governor’s assent.

28. The Government of India, through Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves L

The Government of India, through Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Ltd. (ISPRL), has set up Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR). Which among the following are correct locations for these reserves?
1. Hyderabad
2. Visakhapatnam
3. Mangaluru
4. Padur
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

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1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3
2, 3 and 4
1 and 4
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The Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Ltd. (ISPRL), a wholly owned subsidiary of the Oil Industry Development Board under the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas, has established strategic petroleum reserves at three locations in India: Visakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh), Mangaluru (Karnataka), and Padur (Karnataka). Hyderabad is not a location for these strategic reserves.
– The operational Strategic Petroleum Reserve locations in India are Visakhapatnam, Mangaluru, and Padur.
– These are underground rock cavern storage facilities.
– Hyderabad is an inland city and is not one of the coastal or near-coastal locations chosen for the SPR due to logistical and geological considerations suitable for underground rock caverns near ports.
– Statements 2, 3, and 4 list the correct locations. Statement 1 lists an incorrect location.
The SPR program is aimed at ensuring energy security for India by creating a reserve to address supply disruptions. Phase I involved the construction of the facilities at Visakhapatnam (1.33 MMT), Mangaluru (1.5 MMT), and Padur (2.5 MMT). Phase II is underway to build additional reserves at Chandikhol (Odisha) and Padur (additional capacity in Karnataka).

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29. Which of the following statements is correct?

Which of the following statements is correct?

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A person who is not a member of the Parliament is not qualified to be the President.
Every person who is a member of the Parliament is eligible to be elected as the President of India.
A person qualified to be a member of the House of the People is qualified to be the President.
A person qualified to be a member of the House of the People is qualified to be the President if he/she fulfils other prescribed requirements.
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Article 58 of the Constitution of India specifies the qualifications for election as President. A person is qualified if they are a citizen of India, have completed 35 years of age, and are qualified for election as a member of the House of the People (Lok Sabha). Option D accurately captures these requirements by stating a person qualified to be a member of the House of the People is qualified to be the President *if he/she fulfils other prescribed requirements* (which are citizenship and age).
– Option A is incorrect because a person does not need to be a current member of Parliament to be qualified.
– Option B is incorrect because being a member of Parliament is not the sole criterion; age and citizenship are also required, and specifically qualification for Lok Sabha is needed.
– Option C is incorrect because qualification for Lok Sabha is necessary but not sufficient; citizenship and age are also required.
– Option D correctly states the qualification for Lok Sabha as one requirement, adding that other prescribed requirements must also be fulfilled.
Article 58(1) states: “No person shall be eligible for election as President unless he— (a) is a citizen of India; (b) has completed the age of thirty-five years; and (c) is qualified for election as a member of the House of the People.” Article 58(2) further states that a person shall not be eligible if they hold any office of profit under the Government.

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30. Which among the following pairs pertaining to revolutions that changed

Which among the following pairs pertaining to revolutions that changed the country is/are correctly matched?

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1. Verghese Kurien: Father of the Indian White Revolution
2. Chidambaram Subramaniam: Father of the Indian Green Revolution
3. Neel Kranti Mission: Enhanced the production of fish

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

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1 only
1 and 2
1 and 3
3 only
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Pair 1 and Pair 3 are correctly matched, while Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. Verghese Kurien is known as the Father of the White Revolution (Operation Flood), and the Neel Kranti Mission (Blue Revolution) aims to enhance fish production. M.S. Swaminathan is widely considered the Father of the Green Revolution in India, not Chidambaram Subramaniam, although Subramaniam played a significant political role as the Union Minister for Food and Agriculture during that period.
– Pair 1: Verghese Kurien is correctly matched with the White Revolution (Milk Production).
– Pair 2: Chidambaram Subramaniam is incorrectly matched; M.S. Swaminathan is considered the Father of the Green Revolution in India.
– Pair 3: Neel Kranti Mission means Blue Revolution, which is correctly associated with enhancing fish production.
– The question asks for correctly matched pairs.
The Green Revolution in India involved the adoption of high-yielding varieties of seeds, fertilizers, and irrigation techniques, primarily driven by the scientific work of M.S. Swaminathan and supported by political leaders like C. Subramaniam. The White Revolution transformed India into the world’s largest milk producer. The Blue Revolution focused on the growth of the aquaculture and fisheries sector.

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