2018

171. Which one of the following organizations has been designated as the Co

Which one of the following organizations has been designated as the Counter Hijack Task Force by the Government of India ?

[amp_mcq option1=”BCAS” option2=”CISF” option3=”NSG” option4=”SPG” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is C) NSG. The National Security Guard (NSG) has been officially designated as the primary Counter Hijack Task Force by the Government of India.
The NSG is India’s elite counter-terrorism force. Its mandate includes handling various high-risk situations, including hostage rescue and counter-hijack operations for aircraft. Specialized teams within the NSG are trained specifically for intervention in hijack scenarios.
BCAS (Bureau of Civil Aviation Security) is the regulatory authority for civil aviation security. CISF (Central Industrial Security Force) is responsible for security at airports, including access control and screening, but not the primary operational counter-hijack response. SPG (Special Protection Group) provides security to the Prime Minister. While other forces may have supporting roles, the NSG is the designated operational force for countering aircraft hijacking in India.

172. As a commandant, which of the following has/have to be told to the con

As a commandant, which of the following has/have to be told to the convoy which is going from one area to another ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Brief the men about the condition of the road” option2=”If ROP has been deployed, then the convoy in-charge should be briefed about its position” option3=”Possible ambush sites and dangerous areas should be identified” option4=”All of the above” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is D) All of the above. A comprehensive briefing for a convoy commander and personnel is essential for safe and successful movement, covering all listed aspects.
Before a convoy moves, especially in potentially hazardous areas, a thorough briefing is critical. This briefing should include information about the route (road conditions), operational elements supporting the convoy (like ROPs and their locations), and known or suspected threats along the route (ambush sites, dangerous areas). This information allows the convoy commander to plan tactics, manage risks, and react appropriately to situations encountered during the movement.
Providing details on road conditions helps in managing speed, vehicle spacing, and anticipating delays. Knowing the position of ROPs or other friendly forces on the route is vital for coordination and avoiding friendly fire incidents. Identifying potential threat areas allows the convoy to be extra vigilant and prepare defensive measures at specific points. Omitting any of these details would significantly compromise the safety and efficiency of the convoy.

173. You have to establish a CISF post in one of the mines areas where the

You have to establish a CISF post in one of the mines areas where the CISF is deployed. Several things have to be kept in mind in the process. Which one of the following is not one of them ?

[amp_mcq option1=”The post should be on dominating ground from where there is a good line of fire” option2=”The post should be at a place where communication and road link is good” option3=”The post should be at a place where water is available close by” option4=”The post should be visible to all” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is D) The post should be visible to all. While presence might be a deterrent, making a security post easily visible to *all*, including potential adversaries, compromises its security and tactical advantage. Posts are often located for optimal observation and defense, which may involve some degree of concealment or strategic positioning rather than overt visibility to the general public or potential threats.
Establishing a security post involves considering both tactical/security aspects and logistical/operational needs. Tactical considerations include vantage point (dominating ground), field of fire, and security from attack (which is hindered by being overtly visible). Logistical considerations include accessibility (road link), communication capability, and basic amenities like water. Overt visibility to everyone is generally not a primary consideration and can be counterproductive for security.
A, B, and C represent valid considerations for establishing a security post in an operational area like a mine. Dominating ground provides tactical superiority; good communication and road links ensure operational efficiency and support; and water availability is a basic logistical necessity for personnel. Making the post “visible to all” makes it an easy target and reduces the element of surprise in observation or response.

174. Which one of the following should not be used as first aid to stop b

Which one of the following should not be used as first aid to stop bleeding of the injured VIP ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Direct pressure” option2=”Elevation used with Direct Pressure” option3=”Pressure bandages” option4=”Inject Morphine to ease pain immediately” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is D) Inject Morphine to ease pain immediately. Morphine is a pain medication and is not a method used in standard first aid to stop bleeding. Its administration requires medical training and specific authorization.
Standard first aid techniques for severe bleeding focus on applying pressure to the wound to help blood clot and stem the flow. Direct pressure, elevation of the injured limb (if possible and not contraindicated), and the use of pressure bandages are recognized and effective first aid measures for controlling bleeding.
Pain management, especially through injectable narcotics like Morphine, falls outside the scope of basic first aid. Administering such medication requires qualified medical personnel. The priority in first aid for severe bleeding is to control the hemorrhage, not to alleviate pain through medication that could potentially have side effects or be improperly administered by someone without medical training.

175. Which one of the following is not necessary for perimeter security ?

Which one of the following is not necessary for perimeter security ?

[amp_mcq option1=”CCTV” option2=”Water moat” option3=”Alarm system” option4=”Lighting” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is B) Water moat. While a water moat can act as a physical barrier, it is not a standard or universally necessary component of modern perimeter security, unlike electronic surveillance, detection systems, and illumination.
Modern perimeter security relies on a layered approach, typically including physical barriers (fences, walls), surveillance (CCTV), detection systems (alarms, sensors), and deterrence mechanisms (lighting, signage). CCTV, alarm systems, and lighting are widely used and considered fundamental components for effective perimeter security in various settings (industrial, infrastructure, residential). A water moat is a less common, more specialized, and often impractical barrier in most contemporary security applications.
Options A, C, and D represent essential elements of an integrated perimeter security system. CCTV provides visual monitoring, alarm systems detect intrusion attempts, and lighting enhances visibility for surveillance and acts as a deterrent during hours of darkness. A water moat’s effectiveness depends heavily on the environment and is often cost-prohibitive and difficult to maintain compared to other barriers.

176. Which of the following is/are the duty/duties of the ROP ?

Which of the following is/are the duty/duties of the ROP ?

[amp_mcq option1=”To secure the road route from ambush” option2=”To secure the road route from land mines and IEDs” option3=”To keep the route secure till the convoy has passed completely” option4=”All of the above” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is D) All of the above. All the listed points are standard duties of a Road Opening Party (ROP).
A Road Opening Party (ROP) is deployed ahead of a convoy, patrol, or important movement along a route, especially in areas with potential threats. Their primary role is to sanitize the route and ensure its safety. This involves checking for potential ambush sites, searching for explosive devices (mines, IEDs), and maintaining security along the route until the protected movement has safely passed.
ROP operations are crucial for ensuring the safe passage of personnel and vehicles in potentially hostile environments. Their tasks directly address the main threats encountered on such routes: direct attack (ambush) and hidden explosives (mines/IEDs). Maintaining security until the convoy is clear ensures the effectiveness of the route sanitization.

177. While establishing an observation post, several precautions are taken.

While establishing an observation post, several precautions are taken. Which one of the following is not one of them ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Select a place from where you can see everything without being seen yourself” option2=”The observation post should be lower than the area that is to be observed” option3=”The observation post should be at a point where it can be reached easily and from where you can move out quickly” option4=”The observation post should be far from the skyline” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is B) The observation post should be lower than the area that is to be observed. This is incorrect; an observation post is typically established on ground that is *higher* than or at least level with the area to be observed to maximize visibility and field of view.
Principles of establishing an observation post (OP) include maximizing observation capabilities while minimizing the risk of detection and ensuring the safety and operational effectiveness of the observer. Key considerations are concealment (seeing without being seen), elevation (for good vantage point), accessibility (for deployment and withdrawal), and avoiding silhouetting against the horizon (skyline).
Option A is a fundamental principle of concealment for an OP. Option C relates to accessibility and safety, which are practical considerations. Option D is crucial for concealment, as being on the skyline makes the observer easily visible. Establishing an OP lower than the observed area would severely restrict the field of vision and is contrary to the purpose.

178. What intervention plan is activated by a competent authority to counte

What intervention plan is activated by a competent authority to counter the possible consequences arising from communicated threat or discovery of an explosive device at an airport ?

[amp_mcq option1=”High alert” option2=”Bomb threat contingency plan” option3=”Counter terror contingency plan” option4=”Red alert” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is B) Bomb threat contingency plan. This is the specific intervention plan designed to handle situations involving communicated threats or the discovery of explosive devices.
Airport security protocols include specific contingency plans for various types of emergencies. A bomb threat or discovery of an explosive device triggers the activation of a specialized plan tailored to the unique risks and procedures associated with explosives, including search protocols, evacuation procedures, and coordination with bomb disposal experts.
Options A and D (High alert, Red alert) are general alert levels indicating a heightened state of readiness but are not specific intervention *plans*. Option C (Counter terror contingency plan) is broader and might include bomb threats, but the most direct and specific plan for an explosive device scenario is the “Bomb threat contingency plan”.

179. On which one of the following grounds can monetary rewards not be gran

On which one of the following grounds can monetary rewards not be granted as per the provisions of the Central Industrial Security Force Rules, 2001?

[amp_mcq option1=”Arrest of a criminal” option2=”Making exceptionally good enquiries” option3=”Doing general good work” option4=”Doing extra hard work in connection with the protection, safeguard and security of an industrial undertaking” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is C) Doing general good work. While good work is expected, monetary rewards as per the Rules are typically granted for specific, exceptional acts or performance, not for merely ‘general’ good work.
Rule 88 of the Central Industrial Security Force Rules, 2001 outlines the grounds for granting rewards. These grounds include specific actions like acts of gallantry, exceptional good work, extraordinary work in handling difficult situations, detecting serious crimes, making valuable suggestions, etc. ‘General good work’ is too vague to be a specific criterion for a monetary reward under these rules.
The other options describe specific achievements or efforts: A) Arrest of a criminal (detecting serious crime), B) Making exceptionally good enquiries (exceptional good work), and D) Doing extra hard work related to core duty (extraordinary good work). These align better with the specific criteria listed for granting rewards.

180. Which one of the following is not one of the minor penalties prescribe

Which one of the following is not one of the minor penalties prescribed in the Central Industrial Security Force Rules, 2001?

[amp_mcq option1=”Withholding of promotion” option2=”Removal from service which shall not be a disqualification for future employment under the Government” option3=”Withholding of increment of pay” option4=”Fine of an amount not exceeding seven days’ pay” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is B) Removal from service which shall not be a disqualification for future employment under the Government. This penalty, even with the caveat, falls under the category of major penalties in the Central Industrial Security Force Rules, 2001, not minor ones.
Rule 34 of the Central Industrial Security Force Rules, 2001 lists the penalties. Minor penalties typically include censure, withholding of promotion, reduction to a lower stage in the time scale for a specified period, and withholding of increments of pay for a specified period. Major penalties include reduction to a lower grade/post/time scale, compulsory retirement, removal from service, and dismissal from service.
“Removal from service” is explicitly listed as a major penalty in Rule 34 (ix). The description in option B (“which shall not be a disqualification for future employment under the Government”) is a specific type of removal, but it is still a removal from service, which is classified as a major penalty. Options A, C, and D (or similar concepts like specific fines/deductions) are generally considered minor penalties.
Page 1Page 2Page 3Page 4Page 5
Exit mobile version