2018

111. Which one of the following Constitutional amendments amended a large n

Which one of the following Constitutional amendments amended a large number of provisions in the Constitution of India so as to give effect to the scheme of the States reorganisation and also to certain other changes relating to the High Courts and High Court Judges, the executive powers of the Union and the States and the legislative lists ?

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Third amendment
Sixth amendment
Seventh amendment
Twelfth amendment
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The Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956, was enacted to implement the recommendations of the States Reorganisation Commission and the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. It significantly amended many parts of the Constitution, including abolishing the classification of states into Parts A, B, C, and D, introducing Union Territories, making provisions for common High Courts for multiple states, adjusting executive powers, and modifying entries in the legislative lists.
The Seventh Amendment of 1956 is directly linked to the major reorganisation of Indian states along linguistic lines and introduced fundamental structural changes to the federal setup and related constitutional provisions.
The Third Amendment (1954) related to Schedule VII (Concurrent List). The Sixth Amendment (1956) related to Schedule VII (Union List entry on newspapers). The Twelfth Amendment (1962) incorporated Goa, Daman and Diu as Union Territories. The Seventh Amendment was the most comprehensive amendment dealing with state reorganisation.

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112. Which one of the following statements is *not* correct ?

Which one of the following statements is *not* correct ?

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The freedom of speech and expression includes freedom of press.
The freedoms under Article 19 of the Constitution of India can be claimed *only* by citizens.
The right to equality under Article 14 can be claimed only by a citizen.
The right to life and personal liberty can be claimed by any person.
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Option C is not correct. The right to equality under Article 14 (“The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India”) is available to *any person*, which includes both citizens and non-citizens.
Not all fundamental rights are available to all persons. Some rights are available only to citizens, while others are available to any person (citizens and foreigners).
Option A is correct; the Supreme Court has held that the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) includes the freedom of the press. Option B is correct; the six freedoms listed in Article 19(1) (speech & expression, assembly, association, movement, residence, profession) are guaranteed only to citizens. Option D is correct; the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 is available to any person within the territory of India, regardless of citizenship.

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113. Clause (1) of Article 31A of the Constitution of India has been replac

Clause (1) of Article 31A of the Constitution of India has been replaced by a new clause and the amendment has been given retrospective effect. As a result of the amendment, in addition to laws relating to the abolition of zamindari, some more categories of welfare legislation have been taken out from the purview of which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India ?

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Articles 13 and 17
Articles 14 and 19
Articles 18, 21 and 23
Articles 16, 20 and 32
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Article 31A provides for the saving of laws providing for acquisition of estates, etc. It specifically states that no law falling under its specified categories shall be deemed to be void on the ground that it is inconsistent with, or takes away or abridges any of the rights conferred by *Article 14 or Article 19*. Therefore, laws protected under Article 31A are shielded from challenge based on alleged violations of Articles 14 and 19.
Article 31A was introduced to protect agrarian reform laws (like zamindari abolition) from being challenged on the grounds of violating fundamental rights, particularly the right to equality (Article 14) and the freedoms under Article 19 (especially property-related aspects before its removal from Part III).
Article 31A was inserted by the 1st Amendment Act, 1951, primarily to protect laws abolishing zamindari. Subsequent amendments expanded the categories of laws covered by Article 31A to include other agrarian reforms, taking over management of properties, amalgamation of corporations, extinction or modification of rights of directors/shareholders, and mining leases, all of which are protected from challenge under Articles 14 and 19.

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114. Which one of the following statements is *not* correct regarding the p

Which one of the following statements is *not* correct regarding the power and procedure for Constitutional amendment in India ?

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Parliament must preserve the basic framework of the Constitution.
Schedule I of the Constitution of India can be amended by an ordinary legislation.
A Constitution amendment Bill must be passed by majority prescribed under Article 368 of the Constitution of India.
The process of Constitutional amendment can be initiated by a State legislature.
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Option D is not correct. As per Article 368 of the Constitution, an amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha), not by a State legislature.
The procedure for constitutional amendment under Article 368 reserves the power of initiation solely with the Union Parliament.
Option A is correct based on the Supreme Court’s ruling in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973). Option B is correct; certain changes to Schedule I (related to the names, boundaries, and territories of states and union territories) can be made by ordinary legislation under Articles 2, 3, and 4, which are explicitly exempted from the procedure of Article 368. Option C is correct; most constitutional amendments require a special majority as prescribed in Article 368, and some also require ratification by states.

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115. In the Lok Sabha, the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business make

In the Lok Sabha, the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business make certain specific provisions with regard to bills for amendment of the Constitution. They relate to

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voting procedure in the house at various stages of such bills, in the light of the requirements of Article 368.
the procedure before introduction in case of such bills, if assent is given by the President of India.
the voting procedure in the house at various stages of such bills, in the light of the requirements of Article 372.
the procedure before introduction in the case of such bills, if assent is given by concerned State Governor.
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Option A is correct. The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha contain specific provisions related to the various stages of consideration and passing of Bills seeking to amend the Constitution, particularly concerning the special voting requirements mandated by Article 368 (e.g., majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting).
Constitutional Amendment Bills require a special majority as per Article 368. The Lok Sabha Rules of Procedure lay down the specific steps and voting processes within the House to ensure compliance with these constitutional requirements.
Option B is incorrect; President’s assent comes after a bill is passed by Parliament, not before introduction. Option C is incorrect; Article 372 deals with the continuance of existing laws, not constitutional amendment procedures. Option D is irrelevant; State Governors have no role in the process of amending the Constitution by the Union Parliament.

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116. Consider the following statements about the cache memory: It is a no

Consider the following statements about the cache memory:

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  • It is a non-volatile memory.
  • It is a slow-read and inexpensive memory.
  • It is a fast-read and expensive memory.
  • It is a small-sized memory.

Which of the above statements are correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

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1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
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The correct answer is (B) 3 and 4 only. Cache memory is known for being very fast, expensive per unit of storage, and small in size compared to main memory (RAM). It is typically implemented using SRAM (Static Random-Access Memory), which is volatile.
– Statement 1: It is a non-volatile memory. This is incorrect. Cache memory is usually made of SRAM, which is volatile; it loses its contents when power is removed. Non-volatile memory includes ROM, Flash, SSDs, etc.
– Statement 2: It is a slow-read and inexpensive memory. This is incorrect. Cache is designed for fast access (fast-read) and is more expensive than main memory or secondary storage.
– Statement 3: It is a fast-read and expensive memory. This is correct. Cache memory is located closer to the CPU and is significantly faster than main RAM. This speed comes at a higher cost per bit.
– Statement 4: It is a small-sized memory. This is correct. Cache memory is much smaller than main memory due to its high cost and the need for speed (smaller size allows faster access).
Cache memory acts as a high-speed buffer between the CPU and main memory (RAM) to reduce memory access time. It stores frequently used data and instructions so that the CPU can retrieve them much faster than fetching them from RAM. There are typically multiple levels of cache (L1, L2, L3), with L1 being the smallest and fastest, and L3 being the largest and slowest among the cache levels, but still faster than RAM.

117. Compiler, Interpreter and Assembler are

Compiler, Interpreter and Assembler are

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System software
Hardware
Application software
None of the above
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The correct answer is (A) System software. Compilers, Interpreters, and Assemblers are programs that are part of the system software stack. They are essential tools used to translate programming code into machine-readable instructions, which are required for the computer hardware to execute programs.
– System software is software that manages and controls computer hardware and provides a platform for running application software. Examples include operating systems, device drivers, utilities, and language processors like compilers and interpreters.
– Compilers translate source code written in a high-level programming language into machine code or an intermediate code all at once before execution.
– Interpreters translate and execute source code line by line.
– Assemblers translate assembly language code into machine code.
– (B) Hardware refers to the physical components of a computer system.
– (C) Application software consists of programs designed for end-users to perform specific tasks, such as word processing (MS-Word), browsing the web (Chrome), or playing games.

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118. In computer security, which one of the following means that the inform

In computer security, which one of the following means that the information in a computer system can only be accessed by authenticated parties ?

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Confidentiality
Integrity
Availability
Reliability
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The correct answer is (A) Confidentiality. Confidentiality in computer security ensures that information is accessible only to those individuals or systems that have been authorized to access it. This is typically achieved through authentication and authorization mechanisms.
– Confidentiality is one of the core principles of the CIA triad (Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability), which are fundamental goals of computer security.
– Authentication verifies the identity of a user or system, while authorization determines what authenticated users are allowed to do.
– Measures like encryption, access controls, and strong authentication are used to maintain confidentiality.
– (B) Integrity ensures that data is accurate, complete, and has not been tampered with or modified in an unauthorized way.
– (C) Availability ensures that systems, services, and data are accessible to authorized users when needed.
– (D) Reliability refers to the ability of a system to perform its intended function correctly and consistently over time. While related to availability and integrity, it is not the primary term for restricting access to authenticated parties.

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119. Which one of the following is *not* a database management software ?

Which one of the following is *not* a database management software ?

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Oracle
MySQL
MS-Access
MS-Word
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The correct answer is (D) MS-Word. MS-Word is a word processing software used for creating and editing text documents. It is not designed for managing structured databases.
– A Database Management System (DBMS) is a software system used for creating, managing, and interacting with databases.
– DBMS software allows users to store, organize, retrieve, and manipulate large amounts of data efficiently.
– (A) Oracle is a powerful, widely used commercial relational database management system.
– (B) MySQL is a popular open-source relational database management system.
– (C) MS-Access is a database management system included in the Microsoft Office suite, suitable for smaller databases.
– These three options are indeed examples of database management software.

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120. Which one of the following is a pointing device ?

Which one of the following is a pointing device ?

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Scanner
Optical Mouse
Printer
Keyboard
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The correct answer is (B) Optical Mouse. An optical mouse is a standard input device used to move a cursor or pointer on a computer screen, allowing users to interact with graphical user interfaces.
– Pointing devices are hardware input devices that allow a user to control a cursor in a GUI (Graphical User Interface) and select objects.
– Examples of pointing devices include mouse (mechanical, optical, laser), trackball, touchpad, pointing stick, joystick, light pen, and touchscreen.
– (A) Scanner is an input device that captures images or documents but is not used for controlling a pointer.
– (C) Printer is an output device that produces hard copies of digital documents.
– (D) Keyboard is an input device primarily used for entering text and commands, not for pointing.

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