2017 Archives

81. Tech major Microsoft has launched its new India Development Center (ID

Tech major Microsoft has launched its new India Development Center (IDC) facility in

[amp_mcq option1=”Bangalore” option2=”Pune” option3=”Noida” option4=”Hyderabad” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

The correct answer is C. Tech major Microsoft launched its new India Development Center (IDC) facility in Noida in January 2021.

The new facility is inspired by the Taj Mahal, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, incorporating intricate details and motifs in its architecture. This was Microsoft’s third IDC facility in India, adding to its existing centres in Hyderabad and Bengaluru.

India Development Centers (IDCs) are strategic engineering hubs for global technology companies, leveraging India’s vast pool of engineering talent for product development, research, and innovation.

82. Indian Air Force and French Air and Space Force have conducted a bilat

Indian Air Force and French Air and Space Force have conducted a bilateral Air exercise, “Ex Desert Knight-21″ in

[amp_mcq option1=”Maharashtra” option2=”Rajasthan” option3=”Karnataka” option4=”Tamil Nadu” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

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The correct answer is B. The bilateral Air exercise “Ex Desert Knight-21” between the Indian Air Force and the French Air and Space Force was conducted in Jodhpur, Rajasthan.

“Ex Desert Knight-21” was a significant military exercise held in January 2021. It involved various fighter aircraft from both sides, including Rafales from both forces, as well as IAF’s Sukhoi-30 MKI, Mirage 2000, and Tejas.

Bilateral military exercises are a key component of defense cooperation between countries, enhancing interoperability, sharing best practices, and building mutual understanding. Jodhpur Air Force Station is a strategically important base in western India.

83. Information under the Right to Information Act, 2005 cannot be denied

Information under the Right to Information Act, 2005 cannot be denied on which one of the following grounds/cases ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Information relating to copyright subsisting in the State” option2=”Information is likely to impede investigation or apprehension of an offender” option3=”Information is a trade secret” option4=”Personal information affecting privacy of an individual” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

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The correct answer is D. While “Personal information affecting privacy of an individual” is listed as a ground for denial under Section 8(1)(j), this exemption is subject to a significant proviso: “unless the Central Public Information Officer or the State Public Information Officer or the Appellate Authority is satisfied that the larger public interest justifies the disclosure of such information”. This means that information, even if personal and affecting privacy, *cannot* be denied if the larger public interest outweighs the potential harm to privacy. This strong public interest override makes it a ground on which information *cannot be universally denied*, unlike potentially more absolute grounds in certain scenarios (though most grounds under Section 8 are also subject to public interest consideration). However, in the context of UPSC questions and interpretation of Section 8(1)(j), the public interest override is heavily emphasized, particularly for information related to public officials performing their duties.

Section 8(1) of the RTI Act lists various grounds for exemption from disclosure. All options A, B, C, and D represent potential grounds for denial under this section. However, the question asks on which ground information *cannot* be denied. This implies looking for a ground that is *not absolute* or where disclosure is mandated under certain conditions despite the initial exemption. The ground of “Personal information affecting privacy of an individual” (Section 8(1)(j)) is explicitly subject to the condition of public interest override, making it a common situation where denial is *not* permissible if public interest is high.

Section 8(1)(d) exempts information including commercial confidence, trade secrets, or intellectual property unless the public interest justifies disclosure. Section 8(1)(h) exempts information which would impede investigation or apprehension of offenders. While these also have nuances, Section 8(1)(j) is perhaps the most frequently debated exemption where the public interest test leads to disclosure even for sensitive information, especially concerning public servants.

84. According to the provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005, whi

According to the provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005, which one of the following statements is correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”No reasons are required to be given for seeking information.” option2=”Information is to be supplied free of cost after two weeks from the date of making the application.” option3=”Where an application is made to a public authority for information which is held by another public authority, the application must be transferred within one week to that public authority having the information.” option4=”If an information relates to the life of a person, the information must be supplied within one week under section 7(1) of the Right to Information Act, 2005.” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

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The correct answer is A. No reasons are required to be given for seeking information.

Section 6(2) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, explicitly states that an applicant making a request for information shall not be required to give any reason for requesting the information. This is a fundamental principle of the Act, enabling citizens to access information without needing to justify their request.
Statement B is incorrect. Information is to be supplied within 30 days normally (Section 7(1)). While fees apply, information is supplied free of cost *only* if it is not provided within the specified time limit (Section 7(6)). Two weeks is not the standard free supply period.
Statement C is incorrect. If an application is transferred to another public authority under Section 6(3), the transfer must be made as expeditiously as possible but *not later than five days* from the date of receipt of the application.
Statement D is incorrect. Where the information sought concerns the life or liberty of a person, the information must be supplied within *forty-eight hours* of the receipt of the request (Section 7(1) proviso).

The RTI Act imposes specific time limits for providing information, generally 30 days, but a shorter 48-hour limit for matters concerning life or liberty. Failure to adhere to these limits without reasonable cause can lead to penalties for the Public Information Officer.

85. Which of the following statements is/are correct under the Right to In

Which of the following statements is/are correct under the Right to Information Act, 2005 ?

1. It is not necessary to supply all kinds of information.
2. Information pertaining to corruption in Central Reserve Police Force must be supplied.
3. Information pertaining to violation of human rights in Intelligence Bureau must be supplied.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”1 and 2 only” option3=”2 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

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The correct answer is D (1, 2 and 3). All three statements are correct under the Right to Information Act, 2005.

Statement 1 is correct because the RTI Act provides for certain exemptions from disclosure under Sections 8 and 9. Therefore, it is not necessary to supply all kinds of information.
Statement 2 and 3 are correct based on Section 24 of the RTI Act. Section 24 generally exempts certain security and intelligence organisations listed in the Second Schedule from the purview of the Act. However, the proviso to Section 24(4) (for Central organisations) explicitly states that information pertaining to allegations of corruption and human rights violations shall *not* be excluded from the application of the Act. Both the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) and the Intelligence Bureau (IB) are listed in the Second Schedule. Thus, information relating to corruption in CRPF and human rights violations in IB must be supplied under the Act.

The Second Schedule of the RTI Act lists organisations like IB, RAW, Directorate of Enforcement, Narcotics Control Bureau, Border Security Force, CRPF, Indo-Tibetan Border Police, Central Industrial Security Force, National Security Guard, Assam Rifles, Sashastra Seema Bal, etc. The exemption under Section 24 is subject to the crucial exception regarding corruption and human rights violations. For human rights violations, disclosure is permissible only with the approval of the Central or State Information Commission, as the case may be.

86. According to the provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005, whi

According to the provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005, which one of the following statements is *not* correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”An application for information must be made only in English or in Hindi.” option2=”An application seeking information must accompany prescribed fee except for persons below poverty line.” option3=”No personal details need to be given while seeking information except those necessary for contacting the applicant.” option4=”Information can be sought even orally.” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

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The correct answer is A. The statement that an application must *only* be made in English or Hindi is incorrect.

Section 6(1) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, states that a person seeking information may make a request in writing or through electronic means in English or Hindi or in the official language of the area in which the application is being made. Therefore, limiting the languages to *only* English or Hindi is incorrect.
Statement B is correct as per Section 6(1) and Rule 3 of the RTI Rules, fees are prescribed, but persons below the poverty line are exempted.
Statement C is correct as per Section 6(2), the applicant is not required to give any reason for requesting the information or any personal details except those necessary for contacting him.
Statement D is correct in spirit as the proviso to Section 6(1) states that where a request is made orally, the public information officer shall render all reasonable assistance to the person making the request orally to reduce it in writing. While the formal application needs to be written, the process can start with an oral request facilitated by the PIO. Compared to the definitive inaccuracy of statement A, D is considered correct in the context of UPSC questions.

The RTI Act promotes transparency and accountability. The provision allowing applications in the official language of the area ensures accessibility for people across different states using regional languages.

87. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? Tax expenditure is

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
Tax expenditure is the revenue foregone by the Government due to

1. exemptions under corporation tax.
2. deductions allowed on account of accelerated depreciations.
3. deductions on export profits earned by the SEZ units.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”1 and 2 only” option3=”2 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

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The correct answer is D. All three statements describe revenue foregone by the government due to specific tax provisions, which constitutes tax expenditure.

Tax expenditure refers to deviations from the normal tax structure that provide preferential treatment to certain activities or groups. These deviations result in a reduction of government revenue that would otherwise be collected.
1. Exemptions under corporation tax reduce the amount of corporate income subject to tax, thus lowering the tax collected. This is a form of tax expenditure.
2. Accelerated depreciation allows businesses to deduct the cost of assets faster than their actual wear and tear, reducing taxable income in the earlier years and deferring tax liability. This is considered a tax expenditure as it provides a benefit compared to normal depreciation rules.
3. Deductions or exemptions on export profits earned by Special Economic Zones (SEZ) units are specific tax incentives aimed at promoting exports and economic activity in SEZs. These provisions reduce the tax burden on these entities, representing foregone revenue.

Governments often publish a ‘Statement of Revenue Foregone’ or ‘Tax Expenditure Budget’ in their annual financial statements, detailing these types of tax concessions to show their impact on the budget.

88. Contract is an agreement between two parties which is not

Contract is an agreement between two parties which is not

[amp_mcq option1=”voluntary” option2=”deliberate” option3=”binding” option4=”imposed” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

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The correct answer is D. A contract is based on voluntary agreement, not imposition.

A contract is a legally enforceable agreement between two or more parties. Essential elements of a valid contract include mutual assent (offer and acceptance), consideration, capacity, and legality. Mutual assent implies that the parties enter into the agreement voluntarily (A) and with intent (deliberately – B). Once formed correctly, the agreement is legally binding (C) on the parties. A contract cannot be legally imposed (D) on someone; it requires their free and willing consent.

Agreements entered into under duress, coercion, undue influence, or misrepresentation may be voidable because they lack the element of voluntary and deliberate consent.

89. Auction is a market where price is

Auction is a market where price is

[amp_mcq option1=”set by negotiation between buyer and seller” option2=”arrived at by a bidding process” option3=”notified by Government” option4=”declared by auctioneer” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

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The correct answer is B. In an auction, the price is determined by a bidding process.

An auction is a type of sale in which goods or services are sold to the highest bidder. The price is not fixed beforehand but is arrived at dynamically through competitive bidding by potential buyers. Options A, C, and D do not accurately describe the primary mechanism of price discovery in an auction. Negotiation might follow in some cases, but the core price setting is via bids. Government notification or auctioneer declaration are not the fundamental price-setting mechanisms.

There are various types of auctions, such as English auctions (ascending price), Dutch auctions (descending price), sealed-bid auctions, etc., but all involve a process where participants make offers (bids) that determine the final price.

90. Competitive advantage of a firm does not imply

Competitive advantage of a firm does not imply

[amp_mcq option1=”lower price for same value” option2=”same price for higher value” option3=”same price and same value” option4=”matching core competencies to the opportunities” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

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The correct answer is C. Competitive advantage implies offering something better than rivals, not the same price and same value.

Competitive advantage is achieved when a firm offers superior value to its customers compared to its rivals. This can be done in two primary ways:
A) Offering the same value (same quality/features) at a lower price (cost leadership).
B) Offering higher value (better quality/features) at the same price (differentiation).
C) Offering the same price and same value relative to competitors implies parity, not competitive advantage.
D) Matching core competencies to opportunities is a strategic process or strategy formulation that *leads* to competitive advantage, but it is not the definition of the advantage itself. The advantage is the *result* of this matching process.
The question asks what competitive advantage *does not imply*.

Michael Porter’s framework on competitive strategy identifies two basic types of competitive advantage: cost leadership and differentiation. Both involve providing superior value compared to competitors, either through lower cost or unique benefits.