2017 Archives

51. Which of the following statements relating to the citizenship of India

Which of the following statements relating to the citizenship of India is/are correct?

A person born outside India on or after January 26, 1950, but before 10^th day of December 1992, if his/her father is a citizen of India at the time of his/her birth shall be a citizen of India by descent.
A foreigner who is being illegal migrant can acquire Indian citizenship on application for naturalization to the Government of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

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Statement 1 is correct. According to Section 4 of the Citizenship Act, 1955, as it stood before the amendment in 1992, a person born outside India on or after January 26, 1950, was a citizen of India by descent if their father was a citizen of India at the time of their birth. This rule was in effect until the amendment that came into force on December 10, 1992, which allowed citizenship by descent if either parent was a citizen.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Citizenship Act, 1955, explicitly prohibits “illegal migrants” from acquiring Indian citizenship by naturalization. While the Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019 created a special pathway for specific categories of illegal migrants from certain countries to become citizens, this is not through the general process of naturalization under Section 6 of the Act, and the statement is a broad generalization that is incorrect under the existing citizenship law framework for illegal migrants.

An illegal migrant is defined as a foreigner who enters India without valid travel documents or stays beyond the permitted period of time. The 1992 amendment to the Citizenship Act, 1955 made the rule for citizenship by descent gender-neutral, allowing citizenship if either parent was an Indian citizen at the time of birth abroad.

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52. A Northrop Grumman-built Cygnus cargo ship, a space supply ship to car

A Northrop Grumman-built Cygnus cargo ship, a space supply ship to carry vital supplies for astronauts on the International Space Station (ISS), was launched by

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ISRO

Space X

NASA

Skylab

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

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Northrop Grumman-built Cygnus cargo ships are launched to the International Space Station as part of NASA’s Commercial Resupply Services program. While Northrop Grumman built the spacecraft and initially used their Antares rocket, they have also contracted with other launch providers. SpaceX’s Falcon 9 rocket has been used to launch Cygnus missions, especially in recent times when other launch vehicles were unavailable. Therefore, SpaceX is a correct answer for who launched a Cygnus cargo ship.

Cygnus is a spacecraft for delivering cargo to the ISS. The company that builds the spacecraft (Northrop Grumman) is not always the company that provides the launch vehicle and services.

NASA is the customer for the service (delivery of cargo to ISS) but typically procures launch services from commercial providers like SpaceX, United Launch Alliance (ULA, which operates Atlas V), or Northrop Grumman (Antares). The question asks who “launched” it, which refers to the entity operating the launch vehicle.

53. Which one of following statements is not correct under the Right to

Which one of following statements is not correct under the Right to Information Act, 2005?

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No specific qualifications have been prescribed for appointment as Information Commissioner.

An Information Commissioner holds office at the pleasure of the President.

No person can be appointed as Information Commissioner unless he is a person of eminence in public life.

An Information Commissioner must have wide knowledge and experience in law, science and technology, social service, management, journalism, mass media or administration and governance.

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

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Statement B is incorrect. An Information Commissioner holds office for a term prescribed by the Central Government (as per the RTI Amendment Act, 2019) or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier (as per the original Act, and the age limit is generally retained even with changes in tenure length prescribed by the government). They can only be removed from office under specific grounds like proved misbehaviour or incapacity, following a procedure involving an inquiry, as laid down in Section 14 of the RTI Act. They do not hold office at the pleasure of the President, which would imply the President can remove them at any time without cause.

The tenure and removal process of Information Commissioners are defined by the RTI Act, 2005 (and its amendments), ensuring a degree of security of tenure, unlike holding office “at the pleasure” of the executive head.

Statements A, C, and D reflect provisions of Section 12(5) of the RTI Act, 2005, which states that the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners shall be persons of eminence in public life with wide knowledge and experience in specified fields. While it doesn’t prescribe formal educational degrees, it specifies necessary attributes and experience, functioning as qualifications. Therefore, statement A (“No specific qualifications have been prescribed”) is also technically incorrect as criteria are indeed prescribed, but statement B is the most definitively incorrect legal statement about the nature of their office tenure.

54. Which of the following statements relating to the Constitution (74 th

Which of the following statements relating to the Constitution (74^th Amendment) Act is/are correct?

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It was passed to constitute Municipalities.
It provides for elections to Municipalities.
It has inserted Part IX A.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 only

1 and 2

1, 2 and 3

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

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Statements 1, 2, and 3 are all correct regarding the Constitution (74th Amendment) Act. This amendment constitutionalized urban local self-government bodies, providing for their establishment and functioning.

The 74th Amendment mandated the constitution of Municipalities (Statement 1), ensured regular elections to these bodies (Statement 2) by introducing provisions for an Election Commission for Municipalities (Article 243K read with 243ZA), and added Part IXA (‘The Municipalities’) to the Constitution (Statement 3).

The 74th Amendment Act, 1992 came into force on 1st June 1993. It added the Twelfth Schedule to the Constitution, listing 18 functional items within the purview of Municipalities (Article 243W).

55. Which one of the following types of schools is not covered under the

Which one of the following types of schools is not covered under the Mid Day Meal Scheme (NP-MDMS)?

Government schools

Government aided schools

Local body schools

Private schools

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

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Option D is correct. The Mid Day Meal Scheme (NP-MDMS), now PM POSHAN, is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme that covers children studying in Government schools, Government-aided schools, Local body schools, Education Guarantee Scheme (EGS) and Alternative & Innovative Education (AIE) centres, Madarsas and Maqtabs supported under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA). Private schools are generally not covered under this scheme.

– The Mid Day Meal Scheme aims to provide cooked meals to eligible children in schools.
– The scheme primarily targets government and government-supported educational institutions.

– The objectives of the scheme include improving the nutritional status of children, encouraging poor children to attend school regularly and help them concentrate on classroom activities, and providing nutritional support to children of primary and upper primary stages in drought-affected areas during summer vacation.
– The scheme does not extend to purely private schools that do not receive government aid.

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56. Consider the following statements: Human Development Report, 2015 fo

Consider the following statements:

Human Development Report, 2015 focuses on work instead of job or employment.
The Human Development Index is a composite indicator composed of three equally weighted measures for education, health and income.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

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Both statements are correct. Statement 1 is correct; the theme of the 2015 Human Development Report was indeed “Work for Human Development”, focusing on the importance of work beyond just employment. Statement 2 is also correct; the Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite index combining three equally weighted dimensions: a long and healthy life (health), knowledge (education), and a decent standard of living (income).

– Human Development Reports (HDR) are published annually by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
– The HDR introduces the Human Development Index (HDI) as a measure of human development.
– HDI considers health, education, and income as key dimensions of human well-being.

– The three dimensions of HDI are measured using specific indicators: Life Expectancy at Birth for health; Mean Years of Schooling and Expected Years of Schooling for education; and GNI per capita (PPP$) for standard of living.
– These indicators are normalized to create dimension indices, and the HDI is the geometric mean of these three indices, implying equal weighting for the three dimensions.

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57. Which of the following socio-economic factors tend to keep birth rate

Which of the following socio-economic factors tend to keep birth rate in India significantly high ?
1. Poverty
2. Joint family system
3. Urbanisation
4. Universal marriage
Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 and 2 only

3 and 4 only

1, 2 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

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Options 1, 2, and 4 represent socio-economic factors that tend to keep the birth rate significantly high in India. Poverty often leads to lack of access to education and family planning, and children may be seen as assets. The joint family system can reduce the perceived cost and burden of raising multiple children. Universal marriage, especially early marriage, extends the reproductive period. Urbanisation (Factor 3), however, is generally associated with factors that *reduce* birth rates, such as increased access to education, employment opportunities for women, awareness and availability of family planning, higher cost of living, and smaller living spaces. Therefore, urbanisation tends to lower birth rates.

– Socio-economic factors play a significant role in determining fertility rates.
– Factors like poverty, traditional family structures, and marriage patterns can contribute to higher birth rates.
– Factors like urbanisation, education, and access to healthcare/family planning tend to reduce birth rates.

– Other factors contributing to high birth rates in certain areas might include high infant mortality rates (leading to a desire for more children), lack of awareness or access to contraception, and cultural/religious beliefs favoring larger families.
– India’s Total Fertility Rate (TFR) has been declining over the decades, indicating that the influence of these factors is diminishing overall, although they still contribute to regional variations.

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58. As per the census 2011, which one of the following States in India has

As per the census 2011, which one of the following States in India has the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribes population in its total population ?

Mizoram

Arunachal Pradesh

Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Madhya Pradesh

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

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Option A is correct. As per the Census 2011 data, Mizoram has the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribes (ST) population in its total population among the given options. Over 90% of Mizoram’s population was identified as STs in 2011.

– ST population percentage varies significantly across states and union territories in India.
– States in the North-East generally have a high percentage of ST population.

– According to Census 2011, the ST population percentages were approximately: Mizoram (94.4%), Arunachal Pradesh (68.8%), Madhya Pradesh (21.1%), Andaman & Nicobar Islands (7.5%). Lakshadweep and Mizoram had the highest percentages overall among states/UTs.
– Madhya Pradesh has the largest *absolute* number of STs in India, but not the highest *percentage*.

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60. Which one of the following sector’s contribution is the maximum in Ind

Which one of the following sector’s contribution is the maximum in India’s GDP ?

Agriculture sector

Manufacturing sector

Services sector

Mining sector

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

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Option C is correct. In India, the Services sector contributes the largest share to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP). This has been the case for many years, signifying a structural shift in the Indian economy. While the contribution percentages may fluctuate slightly year to year, the services sector consistently dominates.

– The Indian economy is broadly divided into three sectors: Agriculture & Allied, Industry, and Services.
– Services sector includes diverse activities like trade, hotels, transport, communication, finance, insurance, real estate, community, social, and personal services.

– Historically, agriculture was the dominant sector, but its share has declined significantly.
– The Industry sector includes manufacturing, mining, quarrying, electricity, gas, water supply, and construction. Its share is typically less than the services sector.
– The large share of the services sector is a characteristic of many developing and developed economies, but in India, it contributes significantly to GDP despite employing a smaller percentage of the workforce compared to agriculture.

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