2017

11. Which of the following statements is not correct?

Which of the following statements is not correct?

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The Legislature of a State may, by law, establish a Contingency Fund in the nature of imprest.
The Contingency Fund of the State shall be placed at the disposal of the Chief Minister of the State.
The fund shall be paid from time to time such sums as may be determined by such law.
The Contingency Fund is meant to enable advances to be made for the purpose of meeting unforeseen expenditure pending authorization of such expenditure by the Legislature.
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UPSC SO-Steno – 2017
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Statement B is not correct. The Contingency Fund of the State, established under Article 267(2) of the Constitution and relevant state legislation, is placed at the disposal of the Governor of the State, not the Chief Minister. Advances are made from this fund by the Governor for meeting unforeseen expenditure, pending authorization by the State Legislature.
Control over the Contingency Fund of the State is vested in the Governor, who operates it on behalf of the Legislature to provide immediate funds for unforeseen events. The Chief Minister, as head of government, can recommend the use of the fund, but the constitutional authority holding the fund is the Governor.
Statement A is correct; Article 267(2) permits the Legislature of a State to establish a Contingency Fund. Statement C is correct; the sums to be paid into the fund are determined by law. Statement D is correct; the purpose of the Contingency Fund is precisely to enable advances for unforeseen expenditure when the Legislature is not in session or before it can authorize such expenditure.

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12. Which of the following statements is not correct?

Which of the following statements is not correct?

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All executive action of the Government of a State shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Chief Minister.
It is the duty of the Chief Minister to communicate to the Governor of the State all the decisions of Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the State.
The Governor makes rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of the State.
The validity of rules made by the Governor shall not be called in question.
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Statement A is not correct. All executive action of the Government of a State shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Governor (Article 166(1)). The Chief Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers and advises the Governor, but executive actions are formally taken in the Governor’s name.
Formal executive actions at the state level are carried out in the name of the Governor, similar to how executive actions at the Union level are carried out in the name of the President. The Chief Minister is the head of the government but not the formal head of the executive for issuing orders.
Statement B is correct; Article 167(a) makes it the duty of the Chief Minister to communicate to the Governor all decisions of the Council of Ministers. Statement C is correct; Article 166(3) empowers the Governor to make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of the State. Statement D is correct; Article 166(2) states that the validity of rules made by the Governor under Article 166 shall not be called in question on the ground that they are not rules made by the Governor.

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13. Which of the following statements relating to the Governor is not corr

Which of the following statements relating to the Governor is not correct ?

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The Governor has no diplomatic or military powers like the President.
The Governor possesses executive, legislative and judicial powers analogous to those of the President.
the Governor has equal power with that of the President to appoint judges of the State High Court.
The Governor has the power to nominate one member of Anglo-Indian community to the Legislative Assembly, if he is satisfied that they are not adequately represented.
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Statement C is not correct. Judges of the State High Courts are appointed by the President of India, not the Governor of the state. The President makes the appointment in consultation with the Chief Justice of India, the Governor of the state, and the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court (Article 217).
While the Governor is consulted in the process of appointing High Court judges, the power of appointment rests with the President, not the Governor. This highlights a key difference in the judicial powers between the President at the Union level and the Governor at the State level.
Statement A is correct; the Governor is a constitutional head of the state and does not possess diplomatic or military powers, which are vested in the President as head of the Union. Statement B is correct in that the Governor possesses analogous executive, legislative, and judicial powers within the state sphere, although their scope and impact differ from those of the President. Statement D was correct based on the constitutional provision (Article 333) before it was discontinued by the 104th Amendment Act, 2019. Assuming the question refers to the position before the amendment, this statement would be considered correct.

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14. Which of the following statements relating to Fundamental Rights is no

Which of the following statements relating to Fundamental Rights is not correct ?

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The Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the Constitution not only against the actions of Executive but also against that of the Legislature.
The Supreme Court strikes at the arbitrary action of the State.
The Supreme Court has the jurisdiction to enforce fundamental rights against private bodies and individuals.
The Supreme Court cannot exercise its jurisdiction suo motu or on the basis of PIL.
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Statement D is not correct. The Supreme Court, as the guardian of fundamental rights, can indeed exercise its jurisdiction suo motu (on its own initiative) or on the basis of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) to enforce fundamental rights. This pro-active stance is a well-established part of Indian judicial practice, particularly in matters concerning fundamental rights.
The Supreme Court has wide powers under Article 32 to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights. This power extends to taking up matters suo motu or based on PILs filed by concerned citizens or groups, expanding access to justice for the protection of fundamental rights.
Statement A is correct because Fundamental Rights are limitations on the power of both the Executive and the Legislature (Article 13). Statement B is correct as the Supreme Court uses judicial review under Article 32 to strike down arbitrary actions of the state that violate fundamental rights. Statement C is correct as the Supreme Court has held that certain fundamental rights (like those against untouchability or bonded labour) can be enforced even against private individuals, and in some cases, private bodies performing public functions can fall within the definition of ‘State’ under Article 12.

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15. Percentage of skilled workforce (with formal vocational training) to t

Percentage of skilled workforce (with formal vocational training) to the total workforce (20 to 24 years age group) in India is

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less than 5%
more than 5% but less than 10%
more than 10% but less than 15%
more than 15% but less than 20%
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The percentage of skilled workforce (with formal vocational training) to the total workforce (20 to 24 years age group) in India, according to data available around the time this question would have been relevant, was less than 5%.
Multiple surveys and reports in the period leading up to and including the early 2010s consistently indicated that a very small fraction of India’s workforce had formal vocational training. While figures varied across different age groups and definitions, the percentage of the total workforce with formal vocational training was often cited as being in the low single digits. For the 20-24 age group, despite being younger, the penetration of formal vocational training was still remarkably low compared to global standards. Data sources like NSSO employment-unemployment surveys corroborated this.
Recognizing this gap, the Indian government launched significant initiatives like the National Skill Development Mission and Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana to increase the skilled workforce percentage. However, at the time reflected by the options (likely relating to data from prior years or Census 2011 context), the formal skilling level was indeed very low.

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16. Which one of the following Union Territories has a Legislative Assembl

Which one of the following Union Territories has a Legislative Assembly ?

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Puducherry
Chandigarh
Lakshadweep
Daman and Diu
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Puducherry is one of the Union Territories in India that has a Legislative Assembly.
As per the constitutional provisions and laws governing Union Territories, Puducherry (formerly Pondicherry) has a Legislative Assembly and a Council of Ministers headed by a Chief Minister. This setup is established under Article 239A of the Constitution and the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963. As of the time period when this question would likely have been framed, Delhi and Puducherry were the two Union Territories with Legislative Assemblies.
Chandigarh is the joint capital of Punjab and Haryana and is administered as a Union Territory without a Legislative Assembly. Lakshadweep is an island Union Territory administered by an Administrator. Daman and Diu was a Union Territory without a Legislative Assembly before being merged with Dadra and Nagar Haveli in 2020 to form the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu, which is also administered without a Legislative Assembly. Jammu and Kashmir was reorganised in 2019 into a Union Territory with a Legislative Assembly, but this postdates the likely framing of this question.

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17. A contract labour in India, according to Contract Labour (Regulation a

A contract labour in India, according to Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 is

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hired, supervised, contracted and remunerated by a contractor for the user enterprise
hired, supervised and contracted by a contractor but remunerated by the user enterprise
hired and supervised by a contractor but contracted and remunerated by the user enterprise
hired and contracted by a contractor but supervised and remunerated by the user enterprise
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A contract labour in India, according to the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970, is a person hired, supervised, contracted, and remunerated by a contractor for the user enterprise.
The Act defines “contract labour” as someone employed in connection with the work of an establishment who is hired, supervised, and supplied by a contractor to the establishment. The contractor is the immediate employer who pays wages to the contract labour, while the work is done for the principal employer’s establishment. The definition implies that the contractor is responsible for engaging the labourer (hiring/contracting), directing their work (supervising), and paying them (remunerating).
The Act regulates the employment of contract labour in certain establishments and provides for its abolition in certain circumstances. The principal employer has certain obligations under the Act regarding the welfare of contract labour, but the direct employment relationship is between the contractor and the contract labour.

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18. In the case of surrogacy, according to recommendations made by Law Com

In the case of surrogacy, according to recommendations made by Law Commission of India, birth certificate would bear the name of

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biological mother carrying baby
commissioning parents only
commissioning mother and surrogate mother
surrogate mother and her husband
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According to the recommendations made by the Law Commission of India in its 228th Report (2009) on Surrogacy, the birth certificate would bear the name of the commissioning parents only.
The Law Commission recommended that the commissioning parents should be recognized as the legal parents from the time of the child’s birth, and the birth certificate should show their names as parents. This was intended to prevent any legal issues regarding the child’s parentage and to protect the identity and privacy of the surrogate mother. The report advocated for altruistic surrogacy and strongly recommended against commercial surrogacy.
The recommendations aimed to provide a legal framework for surrogacy in India. While legislation has evolved since this report, the recommendation regarding the birth certificate primarily naming commissioning parents was a significant point to establish their legal parenthood immediately upon birth.

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19. According to results of Census 2011, among the top four populous metro

According to results of Census 2011, among the top four populous metropolitans, literacy rate is highest in

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Mumbai
Delhi
Bengaluru
Hyderabad
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According to Census 2011 results, Mumbai had the highest literacy rate among the given metropolitan areas.
Based on data from Census 2011 for Urban Agglomerations, the literacy rates were approximately: Mumbai (around 89.7%), Delhi (around 86.3%), Bengaluru (around 88.5%), and Hyderabad (around 83.2%). Comparing these figures, Mumbai recorded the highest literacy rate among the options provided.
Literacy rate is a key indicator of socio-economic development. The Census provides detailed data on literacy rates across various geographies and demographics in India. The ranking might vary slightly depending on whether city municipal limits or urban agglomerations are considered, but for the major metros, the relative ranking among the given options typically holds.

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20. In Economics, which one of the following is not an essential condition

In Economics, which one of the following is not an essential condition for existence of market ?

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Product (goods or service)
Buyers
Sellers
Place
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Place is not always an essential condition for the existence of a market.
A market is essentially a mechanism that brings together buyers and sellers to exchange goods or services. The essential components are: 1) A product or service to be exchanged, 2) Buyers (demand), and 3) Sellers (supply). Traditionally, markets were associated with physical locations (marketplaces), but in the modern economy, especially with the advent of e-commerce and digital platforms, markets can exist without a specific physical ‘place’. Online markets, for instance, facilitate transactions globally without a common physical location for buyers and sellers.
Products, buyers, and sellers are fundamental requirements for any exchange mechanism to function as a market. Without any one of these, a market cannot exist.

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