2017

101. The book titled, ‘Platform Scale : For a Post-Pandemic World’ has been

The book titled, ‘Platform Scale : For a Post-Pandemic World’ has been authored by

[amp_mcq option1=”Michael Joseph” option2=”Meghna Pant” option3=”Sangeet Paul Choudhary” option4=”Priyanka Chopra Jonas” correct=”option3″]

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The book titled, ‘Platform Scale : For a Post-Pandemic World’ is authored by Sangeet Paul Choudhary. The book discusses the impact of platforms in the digital economy and their potential role in a post-pandemic world.
This is a factual question about the authorship of a specific book. The book deals with themes relevant to technology and the economy.
Sangeet Paul Choudhary is known for his work on platform business models. Books on contemporary economic and technological themes, especially if authored by recognised experts, are often included in current affairs questions.

102. Which one of the following statements is *not* correct with regard to

Which one of the following statements is *not* correct with regard to quorum of Lok Sabha / Parliamentary Committees ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Quorum of the House is one-tenth of the total members of the House.” option2=”Quorum of a Parliamentary Committee is, as near as may be, one-third of its total members.” option3=”The House/Committee cannot commence its sitting without ensuring quorum.” option4=”Quorum is ensured only when it is pointed out by a member.” correct=”option4″]

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Statement A is correct. As per Article 100(3) of the Constitution, the quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament is one-tenth of the total number of members of the House.
Statement B is correct. The Rules of Procedure of Parliament generally stipulate that the quorum for a meeting of a Parliamentary Committee shall be, as near as may be, one-third of the total number of members of the Committee.
Statement C is correct. Article 100(4) states that if at any time during a meeting of a House there is no quorum, it shall be the duty of the Chairman or Speaker to adjourn the House or suspend the meeting until there is a quorum. Similar rules apply to committees. Business cannot commence without quorum.
Statement D is incorrect. Quorum must be ensured by the Presiding Officer (Speaker/Chairman or Committee Chairperson) before commencing the sitting and also when the deficiency of quorum is pointed out by a member during the sitting. The requirement of quorum is mandatory for the validity of proceedings; it is not contingent *only* on a member pointing it out. The sitting should not commence or continue without quorum, whether pointed out or not.
Quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present for a legislative body or committee to conduct valid business. It is the responsibility of the presiding officer to ensure quorum, not solely dependent on a member raising the issue.
If a sitting commences without quorum and is later discovered, the proceedings may be invalidated. If quorum is pointed out during a sitting and is lacking, the sitting is adjourned or suspended.

103. The book titled, ‘By Many a Happy Accident : Recollections of a Life’

The book titled, ‘By Many a Happy Accident : Recollections of a Life’ has been authored by

[amp_mcq option1=”R.P. Gupta” option2=”Mohammad Hamid Ansari” option3=”Peter Mukerjea” option4=”Kabir Bedi” correct=”option2″]

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The book titled, ‘By Many a Happy Accident : Recollections of a Life’ is the autobiography of Mohammad Hamid Ansari, the former Vice-President of India.
This is a factual question about the authorship of a specific book. Mohammad Hamid Ansari served as the 12th Vice-President of India from 2007 to 2017.
Autobiographies and memoirs by prominent political figures, bureaucrats, and public personalities are often featured in current affairs sections of examinations like UPSC. Staying updated on recent book releases by notable figures is helpful.

104. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? The President of In

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
The President of India can proclaim emergency

  • 1. on the ground of war, aggression or armed rebellion.
  • 2. only if the decision of the Union Council of Ministers is communicated to him in writing.
  • 3. only if both houses of Parliament approve the proclamation after its promulgation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”1 and 2 only” option3=”1, 2 and 3″ option4=”3 only” correct=”option2″]

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Statement 1 is correct. Article 352(1) of the Constitution allows the President to proclaim a National Emergency on the ground of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion (originally internal disturbance, changed by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978).
Statement 2 is correct. Article 352(3), inserted by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, mandates that the President shall not issue a Proclamation of Emergency unless the decision of the Union Cabinet (not just Council of Ministers generally) that such a Proclamation may be issued has been communicated to him in writing. This was a safeguard added after the experience of the 1975 emergency.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The President proclaims the emergency based on the grounds and written communication from the Cabinet. The proclamation must then be laid before each House of Parliament and must be approved by resolutions of both Houses within one month of its promulgation (Article 352(4)). Approval is a condition for the *continuation* of the emergency beyond one month, not a prerequisite for its initial *promulgation* by the President.
A National Emergency can be proclaimed by the President based on specific grounds and only upon the written recommendation of the Union Cabinet. Parliamentary approval is required *after* the proclamation to keep it in force.
The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 significantly reformed the emergency provisions to prevent misuse. Key changes included replacing “internal disturbance” with “armed rebellion” as a ground, requiring written Cabinet communication, and enhancing parliamentary control over the proclamation and its duration.

105. Parliament of India consists

Parliament of India consists

[amp_mcq option1=”the President of India only” option2=”the House of the People and the Council of States only” option3=”The President of India, the House of the People and the Council of States” option4=”the Vice-President of India, the House of the People and the Council of States” correct=”option3″]

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Article 79 of the Constitution of India defines the constitution of Parliament. It states: “There shall be a Parliament for the Union, which shall consist of the President and two Houses to be known respectively as the Council of States and the House of the People.”
The Parliament of India is therefore composed of three parts: the President of India, the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), and the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
– The composition of the Parliament of India is defined by Article 79 of the Constitution.
– Parliament consists of the President, the Rajya Sabha (Council of States), and the Lok Sabha (House of the People).
The President is an integral part of the Parliament, even though they do not sit or participate in discussions in either House. No bill passed by the Houses can become law without the President’s assent. The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha but is not a component of the Parliament itself.

106. “Information” under the Right to Information Act, 2005 does not

“Information” under the Right to Information Act, 2005 does not include

[amp_mcq option1=”records as defined under the Right to Information Act, 2005″ option2=”any information relating to a private body which cannot be accessed by a public authority” option3=”reports of Commissions of Inquiry” option4=”data material held in any electronic form” correct=”option2″]

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Section 2(f) of the RTI Act defines “information” broadly to include various forms of material held by or under the control of a public authority. The definition explicitly includes:
A) records as defined under the Right to Information Act, 2005: Section 2(f) starts with “any material in any form, including records…”. Records are defined in Section 2(i). So, records are included in the definition of information.
B) any information relating to a private body which cannot be accessed by a public authority: Section 2(f) states that “information relating to any private body which *can be accessed by a public authority* under any other law for the time being in force” is included in the definition of “information”. This implies that information relating to a private body which *cannot* be accessed by a public authority under any other law is *not* included in the definition of “information” under the RTI Act.
C) reports of Commissions of Inquiry: Section 2(f) explicitly includes “reports”.
D) data material held in any electronic form: Section 2(f) explicitly includes “data material held in any electronic form”.
Therefore, information relating to a private body that a public authority cannot access under any other law is the only option that describes something *not* included in the definition of “information”.
– The definition of “information” in Section 2(f) is broad but specific.
– It includes various forms of records and data held by public authorities.
– Information held by private bodies is generally not covered, *unless* a public authority can access such information under some other law.
This provision allows citizens to access information about private bodies if that information is held by a public authority and the public authority itself has the legal power to obtain that information from the private body under existing laws (like regulatory filings, reports required by law, etc.).

107. Which one of the following countries has once again topped the list of

Which one of the following countries has once again topped the list of being the most powerful passport in the world, for the third consecutive year as per Henley Passport Index 2021 ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Japan” option2=”Singapore” option3=”South Korea” option4=”Syria” correct=”option1″]

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The Henley Passport Index ranks passports based on the number of destinations holders can access visa-free. According to the Henley Passport Index published in 2021 (across all quarters of the year), Japan held the top position for the third consecutive year, offering visa-free or visa-on-arrival access to the highest number of destinations worldwide. Singapore was consistently ranked second, often sharing the spot with other countries like South Korea or Germany. Syria was ranked among the lowest on the index.
– The Henley Passport Index ranks passports based on visa-free access.
– Japan consistently ranked highest in the Henley Passport Index throughout 2021.
The Henley Passport Index is based on data from the International Air Transport Association (IATA) and is updated regularly. It is considered a standard reference tool for global mobility. While rankings can shift slightly quarter to quarter or year to year, Japan maintained a strong lead in 2021.

108. “Competent authority” under the Right to Information Act, 2005 does no

“Competent authority” under the Right to Information Act, 2005 does not mean

[amp_mcq option1=”Chief Minister of Delhi” option2=”Speaker in case of Legislative Assembly of Delhi” option3=”Chairman in case of Legislative Council of Uttar Pradesh” option4=”Vice-President of India in case of Council of States” correct=”option1″]

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Section 2(c) of the RTI Act defines “competent authority” for different institutions.
A) Chief Minister of Delhi: The Chief Minister is the head of the executive in Delhi. Section 2(c) lists the Speaker for the Legislative Assembly, Chairman for the Legislative Council/Council of States, Chief Justice for Supreme Court/High Court, President/Governor for other constitutional authorities, Administrator under Art 239, or a person/group authorised by the appropriate Government. The Chief Minister is not listed as a “competent authority” for any institution under Section 2(c).
B) Speaker in case of Legislative Assembly of Delhi: Delhi has a Legislative Assembly. The Speaker of a Legislative Assembly is defined as a competent authority under Section 2(c)(i).
C) Chairman in case of Legislative Council of Uttar Pradesh: Uttar Pradesh has a Legislative Council. The Chairman of a Legislative Council is defined as a competent authority under Section 2(c)(ii).
D) Vice-President of India in case of Council of States: The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha). The Chairman of the Council of States is defined as a competent authority under Section 2(c)(ii).
– Section 2(c) provides a specific list of competent authorities for different types of public authorities.
– The list includes heads of legislative bodies, judicial bodies, and constitutional authorities.
– The Chief Minister is not included in this list of competent authorities under the RTI Act.
The competent authority is responsible for matters related to the RTI Act within their respective institutions, such as appointing Public Information Officers and Appellate Authorities.

109. “Right to information” under the Right to Information Act, 2005 does n

“Right to information” under the Right to Information Act, 2005 does not include

[amp_mcq option1=”inspection of official documents” option2=”obtaining information relating to Border Roads Development Board” option3=”taking notes from the official files” option4=”taking certified copy of a decision of the Court” correct=”option2″]

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Section 2(j) of the RTI Act defines “right to information”. This definition describes the *modes* or *ways* information can be accessed.
A) inspection of official documents: Included under Section 2(j)(i) (inspection of work, documents, records).
B) obtaining information relating to Border Roads Development Board: This refers to the *subject matter* of the information sought, not the definition of the “right to information” itself. The right allows citizens to *obtain information* held by public authorities (like the BRDB, if it’s a public authority) using the methods listed in 2(j), but “obtaining information relating to X” is not part of the definition of the *right* itself.
C) taking notes from the official files: Included under Section 2(j)(ii) (taking notes, extracts or certified copies of documents or records).
D) taking certified copy of a decision of the Court: Court decisions are records held by public authorities (courts). Taking certified copies of records is included under Section 2(j)(ii).
The definition in Section 2(j) enumerates the specific methods of access (inspection, taking notes/copies, samples, electronic formats). Option B describes the *subject* of the information, which is not part of this enumerative definition.
– The definition of “right to information” in Section 2(j) describes the means of accessing information (inspection, copying, etc.).
– It does not define the specific subject matter or public authority about which information can be sought.
– Information about public authorities and their activities is generally accessible using the defined modes, unless specifically exempted.
The Border Roads Development Board is a public authority and information relating to it would be accessible under the RTI Act, provided it is not exempt. However, the *act* of obtaining information relating to the BRDB is an *application* of the right, not part of the definition of the right itself.

110. The obligation of a public authority under the Right to Information Ac

The obligation of a public authority under the Right to Information Act, 2005 does not include

[amp_mcq option1=”publication of all relevant facts while formulating important policies which affect public” option2=”providing reasons for its administrative decisions to affected persons” option3=”publication of all relevant facts while announcing decisions which affect public” option4=”providing information regarding commercial confidence to an applicant except in case of larger public interest” correct=”option4″]

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Section 4 of the RTI Act lays down the obligations of public authorities, emphasizing proactive disclosure.
A) publication of all relevant facts while formulating important policies which affect public: This is an obligation under Section 4(1)(c).
B) providing reasons for its administrative decisions to affected persons: This is an obligation under Section 4(1)(d).
C) publication of all relevant facts while announcing decisions which affect public: This is part of the obligation under Section 4(1)(c).
D) providing information regarding commercial confidence to an applicant except in case of larger public interest: Section 8 lists exemptions, meaning a public authority is *not obliged* to provide such information. Section 8(1)(d) specifically exempts information relating to commercial confidence, trade secrets, or intellectual property, unless the public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm. While the public interest clause *allows* disclosure in specific cases, the general stance under Section 8 is one of non-disclosure, not a positive obligation to provide such information. The obligations are primarily defined by Section 4 (proactive disclosure) and Section 7 (responding to requests for non-exempt information). Providing commercially sensitive information is not a general obligation; it is an exception to non-disclosure allowed under the public interest override.
– Public authorities have obligations for proactive disclosure (Section 4) and responding to requests for non-exempt information (Section 7).
– Section 8 lists types of information that public authorities are *not obliged* to disclose.
– Information concerning commercial confidence falls under Section 8(1)(d) as an exempted category.
– The public interest override in Section 8 allows disclosure of otherwise exempt information but does not create a positive obligation to provide such information as a routine matter.
The structure of the Act is that information is accessible unless exempted (Section 8 or 9). The obligation is to provide non-exempt information. Options A, B, and C describe specific actions required of public authorities. Option D describes a scenario related to an exemption, not a general obligation.
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