2016

181. Which one of the following is not an industrial corridor as per the po

Which one of the following is not an industrial corridor as per the policy initiatives ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Amritsar – Kolkata” option2=”Delhi – Mumbai” option3=”Kolkata – Guwahati” option4=”Chennai – Bengaluru” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2016
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As per the policy initiatives of the Indian government regarding industrial corridors, the Amritsar – Kolkata, Delhi – Mumbai, and Chennai – Bengaluru corridors are designated as major industrial corridors aimed at facilitating industrial development and connectivity. The Kolkata – Guwahati route, while important for connectivity, is not typically listed as one of the established major industrial corridors in the same context as the others.
Identifying the officially recognized and planned industrial corridors in India is crucial for understanding the country’s infrastructure and industrial development strategy.
Major industrial corridors in India include the Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor (DMIC), Amritsar-Kolkata Industrial Corridor (AKIC), Chennai-Bengaluru Industrial Corridor (CBIC), East Coast Economic Corridor (ECEC) which includes the Vizag-Chennai Industrial Corridor, and the Bengaluru-Mumbai Economic Corridor (BMEC). These corridors leverage dedicated freight corridors and highways to create manufacturing hubs and smart cities.

182. During 2014-2015, in which one of the following industrial sectors, th

During 2014-2015, in which one of the following industrial sectors, the FDI equity inflow was maximum ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Telecommunications” option2=”Services (Financial, Banking and Insurance, Non-Financial / Business, R & D etc.)” option3=”Drugs and Pharmaceuticals” option4=”Hotel and Tourism” correct=”option2″]

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Data for the fiscal year 2014-2015 on FDI equity inflows into India shows that the Services sector received the maximum amount of foreign direct investment during this period.
Understanding the distribution of FDI inflows across different sectors of the Indian economy is important for assessing investment patterns and economic priorities.
The Services sector typically includes a wide range of activities such as financial services, banking, insurance, business services (including R&D, consulting, and software), communication services, and other miscellaneous services. This sector has consistently been a major recipient of FDI in India over the years. The data cited is based on official statistics released by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Government of India.

183. Arrange the following substances in their order of increasing hardness

Arrange the following substances in their order of increasing hardness :

  1. Gypsum
  2. Topaz
  3. Fluorite
  4. Feldspar

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”4-3-2-1″ option2=”1-3-4-2″ option3=”3-4-2-1″ option4=”1-4-3-2″ correct=”option2″]

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The correct answer is B) 1-3-4-2.
– The hardness of minerals is commonly measured using the Mohs Hardness Scale, which ranks minerals from 1 (softest) to 10 (hardest) based on their ability to scratch one another.
– The Mohs scale values for the given substances are:
– Gypsum: Mohs Hardness = 2
– Topaz: Mohs Hardness = 8
– Fluorite: Mohs Hardness = 4
– Feldspar (usually Orthoclase): Mohs Hardness = 6
– Arranging these substances in order of increasing hardness (from softest to hardest):
1. Gypsum (2)
2. Fluorite (4)
3. Feldspar (6)
4. Topaz (8)
– The correct order using the list numbers is 1-3-4-2.
The full Mohs scale is: 1. Talc, 2. Gypsum, 3. Calcite, 4. Fluorite, 5. Apatite, 6. Feldspar, 7. Quartz, 8. Topaz, 9. Corundum, 10. Diamond. Each mineral on the scale can scratch the ones below it. For example, Fluorite (4) can scratch Gypsum (2) and Calcite (3), but cannot scratch Apatite (5) or Feldspar (6).

184. Which one of the following states has the maximum number of registered

Which one of the following states has the maximum number of registered E-Waste recyclers / dismantlers ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Maharashtra” option2=”Tamil Nadu” option3=”Karnataka” option4=”Uttar Pradesh” correct=”option1″]

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UPSC CAPF – 2016
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The correct answer is Maharashtra.
– This question pertains to the number of registered E-Waste recyclers and dismantlers, which falls under the E-Waste Management Rules. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is the regulatory body in India.
– Based on CPCB data available around the time frame from which this question likely originates (e.g., data from 2016-2019), Maharashtra has consistently had the highest number of registered E-Waste dismantling and recycling units among all Indian states.
– States like Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Uttar Pradesh also have a significant number of registered units, but Maharashtra has typically led in this count.
The number of registered facilities can change over time as new licenses are granted and others expire or are revoked. However, historical data places Maharashtra at the top for having the maximum number of registered E-Waste recyclers/dismantlers. This is often attributed to the state’s large population, high e-waste generation, and relatively developed industrial infrastructure for processing waste.

185. Perth located on 118° East Longitude will be celebrating New Year even

Perth located on 118° East Longitude will be celebrating New Year event on 1st of January 2017 at 6:00 AM. At that time, what would be the time at Los Angeles located on 110° West Longitude ?

[amp_mcq option1=”9:12 PM of 1st January 2017″ option2=”2:48 PM of 31st December 2016″ option3=”11:40 PM of 31st December 2016″ option4=”5:28 AM of 1st January 2017″ correct=”option2″]

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The correct answer is B) 2:48 PM of 31st December 2016.
– Longitude of Perth = 118° East.
– Longitude of Los Angeles = 110° West.
– The total difference in longitude = 118° (East) + 110° (West) = 228°.
– The Earth rotates 360° in 24 hours.
– The time difference for 1° longitude = 24 hours / 360° = 1/15 hours = 4 minutes.
– The total time difference between Perth and Los Angeles = 228° * 4 minutes/° = 912 minutes.
– Convert minutes to hours: 912 minutes / 60 minutes/hour = 15 hours and 12 minutes (912 = 15 * 60 + 12).
– Perth is located in the East, so its time is ahead of Los Angeles, which is in the West.
– Time at Los Angeles = Time at Perth – Time difference.
– Time at Perth = 6:00 AM on 1st January 2017.
– Subtract 15 hours 12 minutes from 6:00 AM, 1st January 2017.
– Subtracting 6 hours from 6:00 AM Jan 1st gives 0:00 AM (midnight) on Jan 1st.
– We need to subtract another 15h 12m – 6h = 9h 12m.
– Subtracting 9 hours from 0:00 AM Jan 1st gives 15:00 (3:00 PM) on 31st December 2016.
– Subtracting the final 12 minutes from 3:00 PM Dec 31st gives 14:48 PM (2:48 PM) on 31st December 2016.
The International Date Line is located roughly around 180° longitude. Moving west across the International Date Line means going back one day. The total longitudinal difference of 228° is less than 180° in either direction from the prime meridian, but crossing the 0° longitude is involved. Perth (118°E) and Los Angeles (110°W) are on opposite sides of the prime meridian, and their difference is calculated by summing their longitudes. Since Perth is East of Los Angeles, its time is ahead, and the date can be different. In this case, going back 15 hours 12 minutes from Jan 1st in Perth takes us back into Dec 31st in Los Angeles.

186. Which of the following statements are correct ? 1. Kolkata port is t

Which of the following statements are correct ?

  • 1. Kolkata port is the only riverine major port of India
  • 2. The port of Cochin is located on the Willington Island
  • 3. Maharashtra has three major ports
  • 4. Mundra port is India’s largest private sector port

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”3 and 4 only” option3=”2, 3 and 4″ option4=”1, 2 and 4″ correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
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The correct answer is D) 1, 2 and 4.
– Statement 1: Kolkata port is the only riverine major port of India. This statement is correct. Kolkata Port (Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port) is located on the Hooghly River, making it a riverine port. It is India’s only major port situated on a river.
– Statement 2: The port of Cochin is located on the Willington Island. This statement is correct. Cochin Port is built on Willingdon Island, a man-made island in the Vembanad Lake, Kerala.
– Statement 3: Maharashtra has three major ports. This statement is incorrect. Maharashtra has two major ports: Mumbai Port and Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT). There are other ports in Maharashtra, but only these two are classified as major ports.
– Statement 4: Mundra port is India’s largest private sector port. This statement is correct. Mundra Port, located in Gujarat and operated by Adani Ports and SEZ Limited, is India’s largest private port by cargo handling capacity and volume.
As per the classification by the Ministry of Shipping, Government of India, there are 12 major ports in India. Statement 3 is factually incorrect regarding the number of major ports in Maharashtra. Statements 1, 2, and 4 provide accurate information about the respective ports.

187. Which one of the following inequalities is always true for positive re

Which one of the following inequalities is always true for positive real numbers x, y ?

[amp_mcq option1=”xy > x + y” option2=”(x + y) < (x + y)²" option3="x + y < x² + y²" option4="1 + x + y < (1 + x + y)²" correct="option4"]

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The correct answer is D) 1 + x + y < (1 + x + y)².
– The question asks for the inequality that is *always* true for positive real numbers x and y.
– A) xy > x + y: If x=1, y=1, 1 > 2 is false. Not always true.
– B) (x + y) < (x + y)²: Let z = x + y. Since x, y > 0, z > 0. The inequality is z < z². This is equivalent to z² - z > 0, or z(z-1) > 0. Since z > 0, this is true only if z-1 > 0, i.e., z > 1. If x=0.1, y=0.1, x+y=0.2, which is not greater than 1. 0.2 < (0.2)² = 0.04 is false. Not always true. - C) x + y < x² + y²: If x=1, y=1, 1+1 < 1²+1² is 2 < 2, which is false. If x=0.5, y=0.5, 0.5+0.5 < 0.5²+0.5² is 1 < 0.25+0.25=0.5, which is false. Not always true. - D) 1 + x + y < (1 + x + y)²: Let w = 1 + x + y. Since x and y are positive real numbers (x>0, y>0), 1 + x + y must be greater than 1 (w > 1). The inequality becomes w < w². This is equivalent to w² - w > 0, or w(w-1) > 0. Since w > 1, both w and (w-1) are positive. Therefore, their product w(w-1) is always positive. Thus, w < w² is always true when w > 1. As 1 + x + y > 1 for positive x, y, the inequality 1 + x + y < (1 + x + y)² is always true.
The inequality z < z² is true for z < 0 or z > 1. Since x, y are positive, 1 + x + y is always greater than 1, falling into the w > 1 range.

188. Which one of the following is different from the remaining three ?

Which one of the following is different from the remaining three ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Triangle” option2=”Square” option3=”Circle” option4=”Ellipse” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
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The correct answer is Circle.
– Triangle and Square are polygons, which are closed figures formed by straight line segments.
– Circle and Ellipse are closed curved shapes, not polygons. They are also both conic sections (formed by intersecting a cone with a plane).
– This grouping places Triangle and Square in one category and Circle and Ellipse in another, which doesn’t allow one to be different from the other three.
– Let’s consider other properties:
– Triangle: Can have varying angles and side lengths (scalene, isosceles, equilateral). Curvature is concentrated at vertices.
– Square: All angles are 90 degrees, all sides equal. Constant zero curvature along sides, infinite curvature at vertices.
– Ellipse: Varying curvature along the curve.
– Circle: Constant curvature along the curve. A circle is a special case of an ellipse where the two foci coincide and the eccentricity is zero.
– The property that distinguishes the Circle from the other three is its constant curvature. Triangle, Square, and Ellipse all have curvature that varies or is concentrated at points (infinite curvature at vertices for polygons).
Other possible but less compelling distinctions could be made (e.g., minimum sides for polygon – Triangle, regularity – Square and equilateral Triangle are regular polygons, Circle is ‘most regular’ curve), but constant curvature provides a clear mathematical distinction that groups Triangle, Square, and Ellipse (non-constant/infinite curvature) against Circle (constant curvature).

189. A circular coin of radius 1 cm is allowed to roll freely on the periph

A circular coin of radius 1 cm is allowed to roll freely on the periphery over a circular disc of radius 10 cm. If the disc has no movement and the coin completes one revolution rolling on the periphery over the disc and without slipping, then what is the number of times the coin rotated about its centre ?

[amp_mcq option1=”10″ option2=”10.5″ option3=”11″ option4=”12″ correct=”option3″]

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UPSC CAPF – 2016
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The correct answer is 11.
– Let R be the radius of the large disc (10 cm) and r be the radius of the coin (1 cm).
– The coin rolls on the periphery of the disc without slipping.
– The path traced by the center of the coin is a circle with radius R + r = 10 + 1 = 11 cm.
– When a smaller circle (radius r) rolls on the outside of a larger circle (radius R), the number of rotations the smaller circle makes about its own center for one complete revolution around the larger circle is given by the formula (R/r) + 1.
– In this case, R=10 cm and r=1 cm.
– Number of rotations = (10 cm / 1 cm) + 1 = 10 + 1 = 11.
– This formula accounts for the rotation due to the rolling action (distance rolled / circumference of coin) and the additional rotation due to the coin revolving around the large disc (one full revolution).
– The distance rolled by the coin along the edge of the disc is the circumference of the disc, which is 2 * pi * R = 2 * pi * 10 = 20 pi cm. The rotation due to this rolling is (20 pi) / (2 * pi * r) = 20 pi / (2 * pi * 1) = 10 rotations (R/r).
– As the coin’s center completes one revolution around the large disc’s center (path circumference 2*pi*(R+r)), the coin itself also makes one full turn due to the change in orientation as it circles the origin.
– The total number of rotations relative to a fixed direction is the sum of rotations from rolling and rotation from revolution.
– Total rotations = (R/r) + 1 = 10 + 1 = 11.
This result is related to the study of epicycloids, the path traced by a point on the circumference of the smaller circle. The number of rotations of the smaller circle about its center relative to a fixed external frame during one revolution around the larger circle is (R/r) + 1 when rolling on the outside, and (R/r) – 1 when rolling on the inside (hypocycloid).

190. A device can write 100 digits in 1 minute. It starts writing natural n

A device can write 100 digits in 1 minute. It starts writing natural numbers. The device is stopped after running it for half an hour. It is found that the last number it was writing is incomplete. The number is :

[amp_mcq option1=”3000″ option2=”3001″ option3=”1026″ option4=”1027″ correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2016
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The correct answer is 1027.
– The device writes 100 digits per minute for 30 minutes, so a total of 100 * 30 = 3000 digits are written.
– Natural numbers start from 1.
– Digits used for 1-digit numbers (1-9): 9 numbers * 1 digit/number = 9 digits. (Numbers 1 to 9 completed)
– Digits used for 2-digit numbers (10-99): 90 numbers * 2 digits/number = 180 digits. (Numbers 10 to 99 completed)
– Total digits used for 1-digit and 2-digit numbers = 9 + 180 = 189 digits. (Numbers 1 to 99 completed)
– Remaining digits to be written = 3000 – 189 = 2811 digits.
– These remaining digits are used for 3-digit numbers (100-999) and then 4-digit numbers (1000-…).
– Digits used for all 3-digit numbers (100-999): 900 numbers * 3 digits/number = 2700 digits. (Numbers 100 to 999 completed)
– Total digits used for 1-digit, 2-digit, and 3-digit numbers = 189 + 2700 = 2889 digits. (Numbers 1 to 999 completed)
– Remaining digits = 3000 – 2889 = 111 digits.
– These 111 digits are used for writing 4-digit numbers (1000, 1001, …). Each 4-digit number uses 4 digits.
– The digits come from the sequence 1000, 1001, 1002, …
– Number of full 4-digit numbers whose digits are included in the 111 digits = floor(111 / 4) = 27 numbers.
– These 27 numbers are 1000, 1001, …, 1000 + (27 – 1) = 1026.
– Digits used for these 27 full 4-digit numbers = 27 * 4 = 108 digits.
– Total digits used so far = 2889 (up to 999) + 108 (for 1000 to 1026) = 2997 digits.
– The numbers written completely are 1, 2, …, 999, 1000, …, 1026.
– Remaining digits to reach 3000 = 3000 – 2997 = 3 digits.
– These 3 digits are the first three digits of the next number in the sequence, which is 1027.
– The digits of 1027 are 1, 0, 2, 7.
– The device writes the 2998th digit (‘1’ of 1027), the 2999th digit (‘0’ of 1027), and the 3000th digit (‘2’ of 1027).
– The device stops after writing the digit ‘2’ of the number 1027.
– The last number it was writing is 1027, and it is incomplete (only ‘102’ has been written).
The calculation steps carefully account for the digits used by numbers of increasing length (1-digit, 2-digits, 3-digits) until the total number of digits approaches 3000, at which point the next number in the sequence is partially written.
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