2014 Archives

31. Which of the following is/are the example/examples of chemical change?

Which of the following is/are the example/examples of chemical change?

1. Crystallization of sodium chloride
2. Melting of ice
3. Souring of milk

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 and 2 only

3 only

1, 2 and 3

None

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2014

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The correct answer is B) 3 only. A chemical change results in the formation of new substances with different properties, while a physical change only alters the form or appearance of a substance, but not its chemical composition.

1. Crystallization of sodium chloride: This is a process where dissolved salt precipitates out of a solution as crystals. It is a physical change because the chemical composition (NaCl) remains the same.
2. Melting of ice: This is a change of state from solid water (ice) to liquid water. It is a physical change because the substance is still water (H₂O), just in a different form.
3. Souring of milk: This occurs when bacteria convert lactose (milk sugar) into lactic acid. This process creates new chemical substances (lactic acid) and changes the milk’s properties (taste, smell, texture). This is a chemical change.

Indicators of a chemical change often include the formation of a gas, a change in color, a change in temperature, the formation of a precipitate, or the production of light or sound. Souring of milk is a form of fermentation, a biochemical process leading to chemical transformation.

32. Consider the following pairs: Region Well-known for the productio

Consider the following pairs:

Region	Well-known for the production of
1. Kinnaur	Areca nut
2. Mewat	Mango
3. Coromandel	Soya bean

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

1 and 2 only

3 only

1, 2 and 3

None

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2014

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The correct answer is D) None. Let’s examine each pair:
1. Kinnaur: Kinnaur district in Himachal Pradesh is famous for apples, grapes, and apricots. Areca nut (supari) is predominantly grown in coastal regions of South India and parts of Northeast India. This pair is incorrectly matched.
2. Mewat: Mewat region spans parts of Haryana and Rajasthan and is primarily an agricultural area known for crops like wheat, barley, mustard, and also dairy farming. It is not particularly known for large-scale mango production compared to traditional mango-growing belts in India. This pair is incorrectly matched.
3. Coromandel: The Coromandel Coast is the southeastern coast of India. While agriculture is practiced, it is not primarily known for large-scale soya bean production. Soya bean cultivation is concentrated in states like Madhya Pradesh (often called the “Soya State”), Maharashtra, and Rajasthan. This pair is incorrectly matched.

Geographical regions are often known for specific agricultural products based on climate, soil conditions, and traditional practices. Knowing the primary produce of different regions in India is relevant for geography and economics.

Areca nut cultivation is significant in states like Karnataka, Kerala, Assam, and Meghalaya. Major mango-producing states include Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka, Bihar, and Maharashtra. Madhya Pradesh is the largest producer of soya bean in India.

33. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? Spacecraft

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Spacecraft	Purpose
1. Cassini-Huygens	Orbiting the Venus and transmitting data to the Earth
2. Messenger	Mapping and investigating the Mercury
3. Voyager 1 and 2	Exploring the outer solar system

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2014

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The correct answer is B) 2 and 3 only. Let’s examine each pair:
1. Cassini-Huygens: This was a joint NASA/ESA/ASI mission to study Saturn and its moon Titan. It did not orbit Venus. This pair is incorrectly matched.
2. Messenger: This was a NASA mission to study the planet Mercury. The name stands for MErcury Surface, Space ENvironment, GEochemistry, and Ranging. This pair is correctly matched.
3. Voyager 1 and 2: These are NASA probes launched in 1977 to explore the outer solar system, specifically Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune. This pair is correctly matched.

Space missions are designed with specific target celestial bodies or regions. Correctly identifying the purpose of famous spacecraft is important for general knowledge about space exploration.

Cassini-Huygens arrived at Saturn in 2004 and orbited it until 2017. The Huygens probe landed on Titan in 2005. Messenger orbited Mercury from 2011 until it was deliberately crashed into the surface in 2015. Voyager 1 and 2 are now in interstellar space, continuing to send back data.

34. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding vegetative

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding vegetative propagation of plants?

1. Vegetative propagation produces clonal population.
2. Vegetative propagation helps in eliminating the virus.
3. Vegetative propagation can be practiced most of the year.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2014

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The correct answer is D) 1, 2 and 3. All three statements regarding vegetative propagation are generally considered correct in the context of its benefits and applications.

1. **Clonal population:** Vegetative propagation involves using parts of a single parent plant (like stems, roots, leaves, buds) to grow new plants. The offspring are genetically identical to the parent plant, thus forming a clonal population.
2. **Eliminating virus:** Specific techniques within vegetative propagation, such as meristem culture, are effectively used to produce virus-free plants from infected stock. While not all vegetative methods eliminate viruses, this is a significant application.
3. **Practiced most of the year:** Compared to sexual reproduction from seeds which is often seasonal, many vegetative propagation methods can be carried out across a wider range of the year, especially under controlled environmental conditions like greenhouses.

Vegetative propagation offers advantages such as maintaining desirable traits of the parent plant, faster maturation compared to seed-grown plants, and propagation of plants that do not produce viable seeds. Techniques include cutting, grafting, layering, tissue culture, etc.

35. In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the following can be use

In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the following can be used in the biometric identification of a person?

1. Iris scanning
2. Retinal scanning
3. Voice recognition

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2014

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The correct answer is D) 1, 2 and 3. Fingerprint scanning is a well-known biometric identification method. In addition to this, iris scanning, retinal scanning, and voice recognition are also established and widely used biometric techniques for identifying individuals based on unique physiological or behavioral characteristics.

Biometric identification uses distinct biological or behavioral traits to verify a person’s identity. Common biometric modalities include fingerprints, iris patterns, retinal blood vessel patterns, facial features, voice characteristics, and gait.

Iris scanning analyzes the complex patterns in the colored part of the eye (iris). Retinal scanning analyzes the unique pattern of blood vessels at the back of the eye (retina). Voice recognition analyzes vocal characteristics, pitch, tone, and speaking patterns. All three listed options (iris scanning, retinal scanning, and voice recognition) are valid methods used for biometric identification.

36. Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?

Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?

Potential energy is released to form free energy

Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored

Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water

Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2014

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Photosynthesis is the process by which plants, algae, and some bacteria convert light energy into chemical energy.
A) Potential energy is released to form free energy: This describes processes like respiration (breakdown of glucose to release energy) or combustion, where stored chemical energy (potential) is converted into usable energy (free).
B) Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored: In photosynthesis, light energy from the sun (a form of free energy) is absorbed and converted into chemical energy stored in the bonds of glucose molecules (a form of potential energy). This is the fundamental energy conversion process in photosynthesis.
C) Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water: This describes respiration, where organic food molecules are broken down in the presence of oxygen to release energy, carbon dioxide, and water.
D) Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out: Plants take in carbon dioxide and water for photosynthesis and release oxygen as a byproduct. Taking in oxygen and giving out carbon dioxide and water is the process of respiration (which plants also do).

– Photosynthesis uses light energy (free energy) to synthesize organic compounds (food).
– Chemical energy is stored in the bonds of these organic compounds (potential energy).
– The process converts light energy into chemical energy.

The overall equation for photosynthesis is: $6\text{CO}_2 + 6\text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{Light Energy} \rightarrow \text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6 + 6\text{O}_2$. This shows that carbon dioxide and water, using light energy, are converted into glucose (sugar) and oxygen.

37. With reference to Neem tree, consider the following statements : 1.

With reference to Neem tree, consider the following statements :

1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of insects and mites.
2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital detergents.
3. Neem oil has applications in pharmaceutical industry.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2014

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The Neem tree (Azadirachta indica) is renowned for its various uses, particularly derived from its seeds and leaves.
Statement 1 is correct: Neem oil contains compounds like azadirachtin which act as natural insecticides, repellent, and growth regulators for a wide range of insects and mites. It is widely used as a biopesticide.
Statement 2 is correct: Neem seeds contain oil that can be used for making soap (a component in detergents) and has potential as a non-edible oil source for biodiesel production (biofuels). While ‘hospital detergents’ is specific, the use in soap/detergents and potential for biofuels from seeds is established.
Statement 3 is correct: Neem and its derivatives have a long history of use in traditional medicine (Ayurveda, Unani). Modern research has explored its potential in pharmaceuticals for its antifungal, antibacterial, antiviral, anti-inflammatory, and other properties.

– Neem products, especially neem oil from seeds, have insecticidal properties.
– Neem oil is used in soap/detergent making and explored for biofuel production.
– Neem has medicinal properties and applications in the pharmaceutical industry.

The numerous applications of Neem tree have led to it being called “Sarva Rog Nivarni” (curer of all ailments) or “village pharmacy” in India. Its eco-friendly pesticidal properties are particularly valued in organic farming.

38. Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in

Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India :

1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2014

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Statement 1 is correct: The term “No-Confidence Motion” is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution of India. However, the principle underlying it is derived from Article 75(3), which stipulates the collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the House of the People (Lok Sabha). The procedure for moving a No-Confidence Motion is laid down in Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha.
Statement 2 is correct: According to Article 75(3), the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. Therefore, a No-Confidence Motion, which tests the confidence of the Lok Sabha in the Council of Ministers, can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, not in the Rajya Sabha.

– The concept of No-Confidence Motion is based on the principle of collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature.
– In India, this principle is enshrined in Article 75(3) (responsibility to Lok Sabha).
– The procedure is detailed in the Lok Sabha’s Rules of Procedure, not directly in the Constitution.
– A No-Confidence Motion can only be moved in the Lok Sabha.

A No-Confidence Motion needs the support of at least 50 members to be admitted in the Lok Sabha. If admitted, it is debated, and if passed by a majority of the members present and voting, the Council of Ministers must resign. The Rajya Sabha can discuss government policies but cannot pass a No-Confidence Motion against the Council of Ministers.

39. Consider the following statements: 1. The President shall make rules

Consider the following statements:

1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2014

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Statement 1 is correct: Article 77(3) of the Constitution states, “The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.” These are known as the ‘Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules’ and ‘Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules’.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 77(1) of the Constitution states, “All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the *President*.” While the Prime Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers and is responsible for the day-to-day governance, formal executive actions are taken in the name of the President as the constitutional head of the executive.

– The President of India is the formal head of the executive and makes rules for the transaction of government business and allocation of portfolios.
– All executive actions of the Union Government are formally taken in the name of the President.
– The Prime Minister is the real executive head, but acts in the name of the President.

The ‘Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules’ allocate responsibilities among the various Ministries and Departments. The ‘Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules’ prescribe the procedure for the disposal of business by the government, including matters requiring submission to the Cabinet, Cabinet Committees, or the President.

40. If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will

If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will

decrease the consumption expenditure in the economy

increase the tax collection of the Government

increase the investment expenditure in the economy

increase the total savings in the economy

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2014

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A decrease in the interest rate makes borrowing money cheaper.
A) decrease the consumption expenditure: Lower interest rates generally make it cheaper for consumers to borrow for purchases (like vehicles, homes) or to use credit, which tends to *increase* consumption expenditure, not decrease it. Also, lower returns on savings encourage spending.
B) increase the tax collection of the Government: While stimulating economic activity might eventually lead to higher tax collection, this is an indirect and not the most direct or immediate effect of a decreased interest rate.
C) increase the investment expenditure in the economy: Businesses often borrow money to finance investments in capital goods, expansion, research, etc. A lower interest rate reduces the cost of borrowing, making more investment projects financially viable and thus encouraging businesses to increase investment expenditure. This is a primary channel through which monetary policy (via interest rates) affects the economy.
D) increase the total savings in the economy: A lower interest rate means a lower return on savings. This makes saving less attractive relative to spending or investing, potentially leading to a *decrease* in the rate of saving or total savings, not an increase.

– Interest rates represent the cost of borrowing and the return on saving.
– Lower interest rates make borrowing cheaper and saving less attractive.
– Cheaper borrowing stimulates investment by businesses and consumption by households.

Central banks use interest rates as a tool of monetary policy. Decreasing interest rates (expansionary policy) is often used to stimulate economic growth during a slowdown by encouraging spending and investment. Conversely, increasing interest rates (contractionary policy) is used to curb inflation by making borrowing expensive and encouraging saving.