2014 Archives

21. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of a food chain?

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of a food chain?

Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings

Crustaceans-Diatoms-Herrings

Diatoms-Herrings-Crustaceans

Crustaceans-Herrings-Diatoms

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UPSC IAS – 2014

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In a typical aquatic food chain involving these organisms, diatoms are producers (phytoplankton), which form the base of the food chain by converting sunlight into energy. Crustaceans (like zooplankton) are primary consumers that feed on diatoms. Herrings are fish that feed on crustaceans, acting as secondary consumers. Therefore, the correct sequence is Diatoms -> Crustaceans -> Herrings.

– Food chains illustrate the flow of energy through an ecosystem.
– The sequence starts with producers, followed by consumers at different trophic levels.
– Diatoms (phytoplankton) are producers.
– Crustaceans (zooplankton) are primary consumers.
– Herrings (fish) are secondary consumers.

Other organisms might be involved in this food web, and herrings can also consume small fish, placing them at a higher trophic level in different food chains. However, the sequence provided in option A represents a valid and common food chain pathway.

22. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Earth Hour’ : 1. It is

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Earth Hour’ :

1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO.
2. It is a movement in which the participants switch off the lights for one hour on a certain day every year.
3. It is a movement to raise the awareness about the climate change and the need to save the planet.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 3 only

2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

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UPSC IAS – 2014

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Statements 2 and 3 about Earth Hour are correct. Earth Hour is indeed a movement where participants switch off lights for one hour on a specific day annually, and its purpose is to raise awareness about climate change and environmental issues. Statement 1 is incorrect as Earth Hour is an initiative of the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF), not UNEP and UNESCO.

– Earth Hour is a global environmental movement.
– It is organized by WWF and involves switching off non-essential lights and electrical appliances for one hour.
– The goal is to encourage individuals, communities, and businesses to take action for the environment and demonstrate commitment to the planet.

Earth Hour started in Sydney, Australia, in 2007 and has since grown into one of the world’s largest grassroots movements for the environment, involving millions of people in over 190 countries and territories.

23. Consider the following international agreements : 1. The Internation

Consider the following international agreements :

1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
2. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
3. The World Heritage Convention

Which of the above has/have a bearing on the biodiversity?

1 and 2 only

3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

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UPSC IAS – 2014

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All three international agreements listed have a direct bearing on biodiversity. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture focuses on conserving and sustainably using plant diversity crucial for food security. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification addresses land degradation, which is a major driver of biodiversity loss. The World Heritage Convention protects natural sites, including those recognized for their outstanding biodiversity.

– ITPGRFA aims to ensure conservation and sustainable use of plant genetic resources.
– UNCCD works to combat desertification, land degradation, and drought, thus protecting habitats.
– The World Heritage Convention identifies and protects sites of universal value, including critical natural habitats and ecosystems.

Biodiversity is fundamental to ecosystem function and human well-being. International agreements play a crucial role in fostering global cooperation for conservation, sustainable use, and equitable sharing of benefits from biodiversity and its components.

24. Consider the following pairs : National Highway Cities connected

Consider the following pairs :

National Highway	Cities connected
1. NH 4	: Chennai and Hyderabad
2. NH 6	: Mumbai and Kolkata
3. NH 15	: Ahmedabad and Jodhpur

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

1 and 2 only

3 only

1, 2 and 3

None

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UPSC IAS – 2014

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Based on the historical National Highway numbering system (prior to the renumbering), none of the provided pairs are correctly matched. Old NH 4 connected Mumbai and Chennai, not Chennai and Hyderabad. Old NH 6 connected Hazira (near Surat) and Kolkata, not strictly Mumbai and Kolkata. Old NH 15 connected Pathankot (Punjab) to Samakhiali (Gujarat) and did not pass through Ahmedabad or Jodhpur.

– Old NH 4: Mumbai – Pune – Bangalore – Chennai.
– Old NH 6: Hazira – Dhule – Nagpur – Raipur – Sambalpur – Kolkata.
– Old NH 15: Pathankot – … – Bikaner – … – Samakhiali.

India’s National Highway network has undergone significant renumbering since 2010. Under the new system, NH numbers and routes are entirely different from the old system. For example, the new NH 4 runs from Krishnagiri (TN) to Belagavi (KA). This question likely refers to the old numbering scheme, as the city pairs align more with those routes, albeit incorrectly matched.

25. Consider the following towns of India : 1. Bhadrachalam 2. Chanderi

Consider the following towns of India :

1. Bhadrachalam
2. Chanderi
3. Kancheepuram
4. Karnal

Which of the above are famous for the production of traditional sarees/fabric?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

1, 3 and 4

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UPSC IAS – 2014

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Chanderi and Kancheepuram are well-known centres in India famous for the production of traditional sarees and fabrics. Chanderi is known for its lightweight sarees woven with silk and cotton, while Kancheepuram is renowned for its heavy silk sarees with rich zari work.

– Bhadrachalam is a significant pilgrimage town in Telangana, primarily known for its temple dedicated to Lord Rama, not textiles.
– Karnal is a city in Haryana, known for agriculture and industry, but not traditionally famous for sarees or fabrics.

Traditional handloom weaving is a significant part of India’s cultural heritage, with numerous towns and regions specializing in distinct styles of sarees and fabrics like Banarasi silk, Mysore silk, Pochampally Ikat, Paithani, etc.

26. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of Ind

The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in

the President of India

the Parliament

the Chief Justice of India

the Law Commission

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UPSC IAS – 2014

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The correct answer is B) the Parliament. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in the Parliament of India.

Article 124(1) of the Constitution of India states that the Supreme Court shall consist of a Chief Justice of India and, until Parliament by law provides for a larger number, of not more than seven other Judges. This explicitly grants Parliament the power to determine the strength of the Supreme Court beyond the initial prescribed number.

Parliament exercises this power by enacting laws, such as the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956, which has been amended several times over the years to increase the number of judges as the workload of the court has grown. The most recent increase was in 2019, raising the number of judges from 31 to 34 (including the Chief Justice).

27. Among the following organisms, which one does not belong to the class

Among the following organisms, which one does not belong to the class of other three?

Crab

Mite

Scorpion

Spider

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2014

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The correct answer is A) Crab. We need to classify the given organisms to find the one that belongs to a different class from the others.

– All four organisms (Crab, Mite, Scorpion, Spider) belong to the phylum Arthropoda.
– Within Arthropoda, they are further classified into classes.
– Crab belongs to the class Malacostraca, which is part of the subphylum Crustacea.
– Mite, Scorpion, and Spider all belong to the class Arachnida.

Arachnids are characterized by having eight legs (four pairs), no antennae, and body divided into two segments (cephalothorax and abdomen). Crustaceans, like crabs, typically have ten legs (five pairs, including claws), two pairs of antennae, and usually a body divided into cephalothorax and abdomen, often covered by a carapace.

28. Consider the following statements: 1. Maize can be used for the prod

Consider the following statements:

1. Maize can be used for the production of starch.
2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel.
3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

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UPSC IAS – 2014

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The correct answer is D) 1, 2 and 3. Maize (corn) is a versatile crop with numerous uses in food, animal feed, and various industrial applications.

1. Maize can be used for the production of starch: Corn starch is a major product derived from maize and is used in food processing, paper manufacturing, textiles, and adhesives.
2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel: Corn oil is extracted from the germ of the maize kernel and is used as cooking oil and in various industrial applications, including as a potential feedstock for biodiesel production.
3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize: Maize is fermented to produce ethanol, which is used in alcoholic beverages (like Bourbon whiskey) and as a biofuel.

Maize is one of the world’s most widely cultivated cereal crops. Its primary use globally is as animal feed, followed by human food (direct consumption or processed products like flour, starch, oil, syrup), and industrial uses (biofuel, plastics, etc.).

29. Consider the following techniques/ phenomena: 1. Budding and graftin

Consider the following techniques/ phenomena:

1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants
2. Cytoplasmic male sterility
3. Gene silencing

Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic crops?

1 only

2 and 3

1 and 3

None

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UPSC IAS – 2014

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The correct answer is B) 2 and 3. Transgenic crops are created through genetic engineering, which involves introducing or altering genes in a plant.

1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants: These are methods of asexual (vegetative) propagation used to combine traits from different plants or propagate desired varieties. They do not involve introducing foreign genes to create a transgenic organism. This is not used to create transgenic crops.
2. Cytoplasmic male sterility: While CMS itself is a biological phenomenon used in hybrid breeding, genetic engineering techniques *can* be used to introduce or restore male sterility genes (like the barnase/barstar system), thereby creating transgenic plants with engineered CMS. In this context, the concept is linked to the creation of transgenics for breeding purposes.
3. Gene silencing: Techniques like RNA interference (RNAi) are methods of gene silencing where the expression of a specific gene is inhibited. These techniques are widely used in genetic engineering to modify plants, for example, to reduce levels of undesirable compounds, improve nutritional value, or confer resistance. Using gene silencing to modify a plant *creates* a transgenic crop.

Creating transgenic crops involves techniques for gene isolation, vector construction, gene transfer (e.g., Agrobacterium-mediated transformation, gene gun), and selection of transformed cells/plants. Gene silencing is a tool used in the genetic modification process. While CMS is a trait, the methods to engineer it into a plant fall under genetic engineering techniques used for creating transgenics.

30. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the

The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

advisory jurisdiction

appellate jurisdiction

original jurisdiction

writ jurisdiction

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2014

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The correct answer is C) original jurisdiction. The Supreme Court of India has original jurisdiction in certain matters, which means these cases can be filed directly in the Supreme Court, bypassing lower courts.

Article 131 of the Constitution of India defines the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. It states that the Supreme Court shall have exclusive original jurisdiction in any dispute between:
(a) the Government of India and one or more States; or
(b) the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more other States on the other; or
(c) two or more States.
Disputes between the Centre and States fall under this category.

The Supreme Court’s other jurisdictions include:
– Appellate Jurisdiction: Hearing appeals against judgments of High Courts and other courts.
– Advisory Jurisdiction (Article 143): President can seek advice on a question of law or fact of public importance.
– Writ Jurisdiction (Article 32): Issuing writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.