2013

91. With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, conside

With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the following statements :

  • 1. The caves at Badami are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India.
  • 2. The Barabar rock-cut caves were originally made for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta Maurya.
  • 3. At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option3″]

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Statement 3 is correct. At Ellora, caves were carved for different religious faiths, specifically Buddhism (caves 1-12), Hinduism (caves 13-29), and Jainism (caves 30-34).
Statement 1 is incorrect. The caves at Badami belong to the 6th century CE (Chalukya period). The oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India are generally considered to be the Barabar Caves, dating back to the Mauryan period (3rd century BCE).
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Barabar rock-cut caves were indeed made for Ajivikas, but they were built by Emperor Ashoka (c. 268-232 BCE) and his successor Dasharatha, who were part of the Maurya dynasty but were not Chandragupta Maurya.
The Ellora Caves are a UNESCO World Heritage Site, famous for their synthesis of three different religious traditions in one complex. The Barabar Caves are located in Bihar and represent some of the earliest examples of rock-cut architecture in India. The Badami Cave Temples in Karnataka are known for their blend of North Indian Nagara and South Indian Dravidian styles.

92. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? Geographica

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Geographical FeatureRegion
(a) Abyssinian Plateau: Arabia
(b) Atlas Mountains: North-Western Africa
(c) Guiana Highlands: South-Western Africa
(d) Okavango Basin: Patagonia

[amp_mcq option1=”Abyssinian Plateau : Arabia” option2=”Atlas Mountains : North-Western Africa” option3=”Guiana Highlands : South-Western Africa” option4=”Okavango Basin : Patagonia” correct=”option2″]

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The pair “Atlas Mountains : North-Western Africa” is correctly matched. The Atlas Mountains are a mountain range in the Maghreb region of North-Western Africa, stretching through Morocco, Algeria, and Tunisia.
(a) Abyssinian Plateau is located in Ethiopia, East Africa, not Arabia.
(c) Guiana Highlands are located in northern South America.
(d) Okavango Basin (including the delta) is located in Southern Africa (primarily Botswana, Namibia, Angola), not Patagonia (which is in South America).
Accurate geographical knowledge is crucial for matching features with their correct regions. Knowing the approximate locations of major geographical features like plateaus, mountains, basins, and highlands is important for such questions.

93. Which one of the following statements is correct?

Which one of the following statements is correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time” option2=”The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President” option3=”No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post” option4=”In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support” correct=”option3″]

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Statement C is correct. The Constitution of India does not lay down a specific procedure for the removal of a Governor from his/her post. Article 156(1) states that the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President. This means the President can remove a Governor at any time without stating a reason.
A) Incorrect: Article 153 explicitly states that “nothing in this article shall prevent the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more States.”
B) Incorrect: Judges of High Courts and the Supreme Court are appointed by the President, not the Governor of the State. The Governor is consulted in the appointment of High Court Judges.
D) Incorrect: In Union Territories with a legislative setup (like Delhi, Puducherry), the Chief Minister is appointed by the President, usually acting through the Lt. Governor, but the appointment is based on the majority support in the Assembly and formally made by the President. The Lt. Governor administers the UT on behalf of the President.
While the Constitution does not prescribe a procedure for removal, the Supreme Court in Rameshwar Prasad & Ors vs Union Of India & Anr (2006) ruled that the power to remove a Governor cannot be exercised arbitrarily or capriciously. Removal should be based on compelling reasons related to the Governor’s unsuitability or unfitness for office.

94. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya

What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

[amp_mcq option1=”The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha” option2=”The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further” option3=”The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration” option4=”The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill” correct=”option1″]

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If a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha, the Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha.
Under Article 109 of the Constitution, the Rajya Sabha has limited powers regarding Money Bills. It cannot amend a Money Bill itself but can only make recommendations within a period of fourteen days. The Lok Sabha is not bound by these recommendations.
If the Lok Sabha accepts any recommendations, the Bill is deemed passed by both houses with those amendments. If the Lok Sabha rejects all recommendations, the Bill is deemed passed by both houses in the form in which it was passed by the Lok Sabha. This highlights the Lok Sabha’s primacy in financial matters. There is no provision for a joint sitting for Money Bills because the Lok Sabha’s decision is final.

95. Statement I: When a piece of brick lying on grass for a number of days

Statement I: When a piece of brick lying on grass for a number of days is removed, the covered part of the grass appears pale.
Statement II: Synthesis of chlorophyll, which gives green pigment, occurs in presence of sunlight.

[amp_mcq option1=”Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I” option2=”Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I” option3=”Statement I is true but Statement II is false” option4=”Statement I is false but Statement II is true” correct=”option1″]

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Both statements are individually true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
– Statement I describes an observed phenomenon: grass covered by an opaque object (like a brick) becomes pale. This is a common observation.
– Statement II provides a scientific fact: Chlorophyll, the pigment responsible for the green color in plants, requires sunlight for its synthesis. This process is part of photosynthesis.
– The paleness of the grass (loss of green color) occurs because the brick blocks sunlight, preventing the grass from synthesizing chlorophyll. Without chlorophyll, the green pigment is absent or significantly reduced. Therefore, Statement II directly explains why Statement I occurs.
– This phenomenon is an example of etiolation, a process where plants grow in the absence of light, resulting in pale, elongated stems and small leaves due to lack of chlorophyll development.

96. Which of the following recommendations of J. S. Verma Committee on cri

Which of the following recommendations of J. S. Verma Committee on crime against women was/were accepted by the Government by way of an ordinance?

  • Armed force personnel, who commit crime against women, could be tried under ordinary criminal law
  • There would be restriction of politicians facing sexual offence charges from contesting elections
  • Criminalization of marital rape
  • Question regarding moral character will not be put to the victim during cross-examination

[amp_mcq option1=”2, 3 and 4″ option2=”2 and 4 only” option3=”1, 2 and 3″ option4=”4 only” correct=”option4″]

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Only the recommendation regarding the victim’s moral character during cross-examination was accepted and enacted by the government through the 2013 ordinance/act.
– The Justice J.S. Verma Committee submitted its report in January 2013, recommending significant changes to laws concerning crimes against women. The government subsequently passed the Criminal Law (Amendment) Ordinance, 2013, which later became the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013.
– Recommendation 4 (Question regarding moral character will not be put to the victim during cross-examination) was accepted and enacted by inserting Section 53A into the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. This section makes evidence of the victim’s character or previous sexual experience irrelevant in cases of sexual offences where consent is an issue.
– Recommendation 1 (Armed force personnel… tried under ordinary criminal law): The committee recommended reviewing immunity laws like AFSPA in cases of sexual offences. While the 2013 act applied to all persons, changing the jurisdiction for armed forces personnel specifically under their respective service laws or requiring sanction for prosecution under ordinary law was not fundamentally altered by *this* act in a way that fully implements this recommendation.
– Recommendation 2 (Restriction of politicians facing sexual offence charges from contesting elections): The committee recommended disqualification, but this was a recommendation regarding electoral law and was *not* included in the criminal law amendment ordinance/act.
– Recommendation 3 (Criminalization of marital rape): The committee recommended criminalizing marital rape, but the exception for marital rape was retained in Section 375 of the IPC in the 2013 amendment. This recommendation was *not* accepted.
– The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, significantly broadened the definition of sexual offences, introduced new categories of offences like acid attack, voyeurism, stalking, and increased penalties for various crimes against women.

97. United Nations General Assembly declared the year 2013 as

United Nations General Assembly declared the year 2013 as

[amp_mcq option1=”International Year of Water Cooperation” option2=”International Year of Space Cooperation” option3=”International Year of Air Cooperation” option4=”International Year of Science and Technology Cooperation” correct=”option1″]

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The correct option is A.
– The United Nations General Assembly, in its resolution A/RES/65/154 adopted on 20 December 2010, declared 2013 as the International Year of Water Cooperation.
– The declaration aimed to highlight the importance of water cooperation, recognizing that water is critical for sustainable development, poverty eradication, food security, and human well-being.
– The theme focused on promoting dialogue, building trust, and finding peaceful solutions for the cooperative management of water resources.
– Other UN International Years include International Year of Biodiversity (2010), International Year of Forests (2011), International Year of Sustainable Energy for All (2012), and International Year of Family Farming (2014).

98. The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) in June 2013 has specified a

The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) in June 2013 has specified a value for the cost inflation index of 2013-14. In this regard, which of the statements given below is/are correct?

  • 1. There has been a rise in the cost inflation index over the year 2012-13.
  • 2. The cost inflation index helps in reducing the inflationary gains, thereby reducing the long-term capital gains tax payout for a taxpayer.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option3″]

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Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.
– The Cost Inflation Index (CII) is notified by the Central Government under the Income Tax Act, 1961. It is used to adjust the purchase price of an asset for inflation when calculating long-term capital gains.
– The CII for a financial year is typically higher than that of the previous financial year, reflecting the general trend of inflation. Given the inflationary environment in India around 2013, it is highly likely that the CII for 2013-14 was higher than that for 2012-13.
– The purpose of indexation using CII is to account for the decrease in the purchasing power of money due to inflation. By indexing the cost of acquisition and improvement, the taxable capital gain is reduced, as it accounts for only the real gain over and above inflation. This directly reduces the long-term capital gains tax liability for the taxpayer.
– CII for FY 2012-13 was 852. CII for FY 2013-14 was 939. This confirms Statement 1.
– Long-term capital gains tax is applicable on the profit made from the sale of assets held for a specified period (e.g., over 3 years for property, over 1 year for shares at that time, regulations change). Indexation benefit is available for certain long-term capital assets.

99. The Government of India on 12th June, 2013 enhanced the limit of forei

The Government of India on 12th June, 2013 enhanced the limit of foreign investments in government securities by 5 billion US dollar. In this regard, which of the following statements is not correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”It was done in order to increase inflow of overseas capital” option2=”It will strengthen the value of rupee” option3=”The foreign institutional investors registered to SEBI are only eligible for investment in the enhanced limit of 5 billion US dollar” option4=”The investment can be made in all categories of investments across the board” correct=”option4″]

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Statement D is not correct.
– The government enhanced the limit of foreign investments specifically in *government securities* (G-secs) and corporate bonds by $5 billion in June 2013. This measure was aimed at attracting more foreign capital inflow to support the Indian rupee, which was facing depreciation pressure at the time.
– Increasing foreign investment limits in debt markets (like G-secs) helps increase the supply of foreign currency (US Dollars) in the Indian market, which can strengthen the demand for the Indian Rupee, potentially supporting its value.
– Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs, now largely replaced by Foreign Portfolio Investors – FPIs) registered with SEBI are the primary channels through which foreign investments are made in the Indian securities market under specified limits and regulations. Therefore, eligibility was indeed restricted to such registered entities.
– The enhancement was specifically for investments in government securities and corporate bonds, not “all categories of investments across the board”, which would include equities, alternative investment funds, etc.
– Such measures are part of capital account management by the central bank (RBI) and the government to influence foreign exchange flows and manage the currency value and external debt.
– The total FII limit for investment in government securities was raised to $25 billion after this announcement.

100. Consider the following statements about NEOSSat launched by PSLV in Fe

Consider the following statements about NEOSSat launched by PSLV in February 2013 :

  • 1. It is the only space telescope dedicated to searching for asteroids that might have a threat to the earth.
  • 2. It was designed and developed by ISRO.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option1″]

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Statement 1 is correct, while Statement 2 is incorrect.
– NEOSSat (Near Earth Object Surveillance Satellite) was indeed the first space telescope dedicated to searching for and tracking asteroids and space debris that could pose a threat to Earth. It was launched in February 2013.
– NEOSSat was a Canadian satellite mission, developed and operated by the Canadian Space Agency (CSA) and Defence Research and Development Canada (DRDC). ISRO’s PSLV rocket was used to launch the satellite as a co-passenger, but ISRO did not design or develop NEOSSat.
– ISRO’s PSLV-C20 mission on February 25, 2013, successfully launched NEOSSat along with other satellites like SARAL (primary payload), UniBRITE, BRITE-Austria, SAPPHIRE, and TUGSAT-1 from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota.
– While other space telescopes (like Hubble or Kepler) might observe asteroids, NEOSSat was specifically designed for this dedicated purpose, giving Statement 1 validity in its context.
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