31. Which of the following statements about Ecomark is/are correct? 1. E

Which of the following statements about Ecomark is/are correct?

  • 1. Ecomark is a certification mark issued by the Bureau of Indian Standard for the product conforming to a set of standards aimed at the least impact on ecosystem.
  • 2. The purpose of the mark is to increase awareness among the consumers towards reducing environmental impact.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2012
The correct option is B, stating that statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
The Ecomark scheme in India is a certification system for products that are environmentally friendly, managed by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS). Its purpose includes raising consumer awareness about environmental issues.
Statement 1: Ecomark is indeed a certification mark issued by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) for products that meet certain environmental criteria designed to have the least impact on the ecosystem. This statement is correct.
Statement 2: A primary purpose of the Ecomark scheme is to encourage consumers to purchase environmentally preferable products, thereby increasing awareness among consumers towards reducing environmental impact. This statement is correct.
The question asks to select the correct answer using the code, and option B corresponds to “1 and 2 only”.

32. As part of a framework of human rights law, all human rights are 1.

As part of a framework of human rights law, all human rights are

  • 1. interdependent
  • 2. interrelated
  • 3. indivisible

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1, 2 and 3
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2012
The correct option is A, stating that all three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct as part of a framework of human rights law.
The principles of interdependence, interrelatedness, and indivisibility are fundamental tenets of the international human rights framework, widely recognized and affirmed in international documents like the Vienna Declaration and Programme of Action (1993).
1. Interdependent: All human rights depend on each other for their full realization. The enjoyment of one right is often linked to the enjoyment of others.
2. Interrelated: Human rights are connected and belong together as a whole. They are not separate or isolated concepts.
3. Indivisible: Human rights cannot be separated into categories (like civil/political vs. economic/social/cultural) where some are considered more important or prerequisite to others. All rights are equally important and necessary for human dignity.

These principles emphasize that all human rights should be treated with equal importance and that progress in one area facilitates progress in others, while violation of one right can negatively affect the enjoyment of others. All three statements accurately reflect these core principles.

33. Which one among the following treaties of human rights was signed but

Which one among the following treaties of human rights was signed but not yet ratified by India?

International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
International Convention on the Elimination of all Forms of Racial Discrimination
Convention on the Political Rights of Women
United Nations Convention against Torture
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2012
The correct option is D, the United Nations Convention against Torture (CAT), which India has signed but not yet ratified.
Ratification is a formal process by which a state signifies its consent to be bound by a treaty. Signing a treaty indicates a state’s intention to comply with the treaty and its willingness to continue the treaty-making process.
A) International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR): India signed this Covenant on 10 April 1979 and ratified it on the same day.
B) International Convention on the Elimination of all Forms of Racial Discrimination (CERD): India signed this Convention on 1 March 1968 and ratified it on 3 December 1968.
C) Convention on the Political Rights of Women: India signed this Convention on 22 May 1953 and ratified it on 1 November 1953.
D) United Nations Convention against Torture and Other Cruel, Inhuman or Degrading Treatment or Punishment (UNCAT or CAT): India signed this Convention on 14 October 1997 but has not yet ratified it. Ratification requires the passage of domestic legislation to implement the treaty’s provisions.

34. Which of the following was/were the essence of the peace-building effo

Which of the following was/were the essence of the peace-building efforts of the United Nations from 1980s onwards?

  • 1. To resolve underlying disputes between the belligerents
  • 2. To monitor arms control agreements
  • 3. Providing development assistance to maintain peace

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 only
2 only
1 and 2
2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2012
The correct option is D, suggesting that monitoring arms control agreements and providing development assistance were the essence of UN peace-building efforts from the 1980s onwards.
UN peace-building efforts evolved from traditional peacekeeping to more comprehensive approaches aimed at preventing the recurrence of conflict. Key elements include addressing root causes, strengthening institutions, promoting reconciliation, and supporting economic recovery. The period “from 1980s onwards” marks a shift towards these multi-dimensional approaches.
Statement 1: “To resolve underlying disputes between the belligerents”. While creating an environment for dispute resolution is part of peacebuilding, direct ‘resolution’ is often the goal of conflict resolution or peacemaking, which precedes or runs parallel to peacebuilding. Peacebuilding focuses more on transforming relationships and strengthening capacities to *manage* future disputes peacefully by addressing root causes. This statement might be considered a goal supported by peacebuilding rather than its direct essence.
Statement 2: “To monitor arms control agreements”. This can be a component, especially in the context of disarmament, demobilization, and reintegration (DDR) programs, which are integral to post-conflict peacebuilding. It contributes to creating a secure environment.
Statement 3: “Providing development assistance to maintain peace”. This is a crucial aspect of peacebuilding, as economic revitalisation, poverty reduction, and equitable development are seen as essential for addressing root causes of conflict and building a sustainable peace.
Considering the options, and acknowledging the complexities of the term “essence”, Option D which includes development assistance (a widely accepted core element) and arms control monitoring (relevant, especially in the form of DDR-related monitoring), is presented as the correct answer in some contexts. The exclusion of “resolving underlying disputes” (Statement 1) from options combined with 3 is problematic, as addressing root causes/disputes is fundamental. However, if forced to choose based on typical interpretations in exams like UPSC, Statement 3 is definitely key, and Statement 2 (interpreted broadly to include post-conflict security arrangements like DDR monitoring) could be deemed more central than Statement 1 (interpreted as direct dispute resolution).

35. Consider the following statements: 1. The Rajya Sabha is never disso

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. The Rajya Sabha is never dissolved and can be called to session any time at short notice.
  • 2. Under the Constitution of India, the law-making powers of the two Houses of the Indian Parliament are symmetrical.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2012
The correct option is A, stating that only statement 1 is correct.
Statement 1 concerns the dissolution of the Rajya Sabha. Statement 2 compares the law-making powers of the two Houses of Parliament.
Statement 1: The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. One-third of its members retire every two years, and new members are elected to replace them. It can indeed be called into session at short notice by the President. Thus, statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2: Under the Constitution of India, the law-making powers of the two Houses of the Indian Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) are not symmetrical. While they have equal powers in ordinary legislation, there are significant differences in financial matters (Money Bills can only originate in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha has limited powers), and in the case of a joint sitting, the Lok Sabha’s strength is much greater, giving it a dominant position. Special powers are also vested in the Rajya Sabha concerning subjects in the State List and the creation of All India Services (Articles 249 and 312). Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.

36. A and B take part in 100 meters race, where A beats B by 10 meters. To

A and B take part in 100 meters race, where A beats B by 10 meters. To favour B, A starts 10 meters behind the starting line in a second 100 meters race, running at their earlier speeds. Which one among the following is true in view of the second race?

A and B reach the finishing line simultaneously
B beats A by 1 meter
B beats A by 2 meters
A beats B by 1 meter
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2012
The correct option is D, indicating A beats B by 1 meter in the second race.
In the first race, A beats B by 10 meters in a 100-meter race. This allows us to determine the relative speeds of A and B. In the second race, A starts 10 meters behind the line and runs 110 meters, while B runs 100 meters, and they maintain their earlier speeds. We need to compare their finish times.
Let the length of the race track be $L = 100$ meters.
In the first race, A runs 100m and B runs 90m in the same time, say T.
Speed of A, $V_A = 100 / T$.
Speed of B, $V_B = 90 / T$.
Ratio of speeds: $V_A / V_B = (100/T) / (90/T) = 100/90 = 10/9$. So, $V_A = (10/9) V_B$.

In the second race, the finish line is 100 meters from the standard starting line.
A starts 10 meters behind the starting line, so A has to run $100 + 10 = 110$ meters to reach the finish line.
B starts at the regular starting line, so B has to run 100 meters to reach the finish line.

Time taken by A to cover 110 meters: $T_A = \text{Distance} / \text{Speed} = 110 / V_A$.
Time taken by B to cover 100 meters: $T_B = \text{Distance} / \text{Speed} = 100 / V_B$.

Substitute $V_A = (10/9) V_B$ into the expression for $T_A$:
$T_A = 110 / ((10/9) V_B) = (110 \times 9) / (10 \times V_B) = 990 / (10 V_B) = 99 / V_B$.

Now compare $T_A$ and $T_B$:
$T_A = 99 / V_B$ and $T_B = 100 / V_B$.
Since $99 < 100$ and $V_B$ is positive, $T_A < T_B$. A reaches the finish line faster than B. A beats B. To find by how much A beats B, calculate the distance covered by B when A finishes the race (at time $T_A$). Distance covered by B at time $T_A$ is $D_B = V_B \times T_A = V_B \times (99 / V_B) = 99$ meters. When A crosses the finish line, B has covered 99 meters from their starting line. The finish line is at 100 meters for B. So, B is $100 - 99 = 1$ meter behind the finish line when A finishes. A beats B by 1 meter.

37. If X is richer than Y Z is richer than X P is richer than Z Q is the r

If
X is richer than Y
Z is richer than X
P is richer than Z
Q is the richest of all
who among the following will have the central position if they are made to sit in the above degree of richness?

X
Y
Z
P
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2012
The correct option is C, indicating Z will have the central position.
We are given a set of comparative statements about the richness of five individuals: X, Y, Z, P, and Q. We need to establish the relative order of their richness and find the person in the middle position.
The given statements are:
1. X is richer than Y (Y < X) 2. Z is richer than X (X < Z) Combining statements 1 and 2: Y < X < Z. 3. P is richer than Z (Z < P) Combining with the previous order: Y < X < Z < P. 4. Q is the richest of all. This means Q is richer than P, and therefore richer than everyone else. Adding Q to the order: Y < X < Z < P < Q. There are 5 individuals in the order of increasing richness: Y, X, Z, P, Q. In a list of 5 items, the central position is the 3rd position. In the order Y < X < Z < P < Q, the person in the 3rd position is Z.

38. 10 identical coins are lying on a table having head ‘H’ face as the up

10 identical coins are lying on a table having head ‘H’ face as the upper face. In one attempt, exactly four coins can be turned upside down. What is the minimum total number of attempts in which tail ‘T’ face of all the 10 coins can be brought to be the upper face?

4
5
6
7
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2012
The correct option provided is B (5). However, a mathematical analysis indicates that the minimum number of attempts is 3. Assuming the provided options are correct and the question is solvable within them, there might be an unstated constraint or nuance not captured by simple state transition analysis. Based on standard interpretations of this type of coin-flipping puzzle, 3 attempts are sufficient and necessary. Let’s explain the 3-attempt solution, acknowledging the discrepancy with the provided options.
Let H be the number of heads and T be the number of tails. Initially, state is (H=10, T=0). Target state is (H=0, T=10). In each attempt, exactly 4 coins are flipped.
Let $h$ be the number of heads flipped and $t$ be the number of tails flipped in an attempt, where $h+t=4$. The new state is $(H’ = H-h+t, T’ = T-t+h)$.
Alternatively, consider the number of coins flipped an odd number of times ($o$) and an even number of times ($e$). Initially $(o=0, e=10)$. Target $(o=10, e=0)$. Flipping $x$ coins from the odd group and $y$ from the even group ($x+y=4$) results in a new state $(o’ = o-x+y, e’ = e-y+x)$.
Using the (H,T) state:
Attempt 1: From (10,0). Only H coins are available. Must flip 4 H and 0 T (h=4, t=0). New state: (10-4+0, 0-0+4) = (6,4).
Attempt 2: From (6,4). Possible flips (h,t) with h+t=4, h<=6, t<=4: (4,0), (3,1), (2,2), (1,3), (0,4). - (4,0) -> (6-4+0, 4-0+4) = (2,8)
– (3,1) -> (6-3+1, 4-1+3) = (4,6)
– (2,2) -> (6-2+2, 4-2+2) = (6,4)
– (1,3) -> (6-1+3, 4-3+1) = (8,2)
– (0,4) -> (6-0+4, 4-4+0) = (10,0)
To make progress towards (0,10), we can go to (2,8) or (4,6).
Attempt 3:
– From (4,6). Possible flips (h,t) with h+t=4, h<=4, t<=6: (4,0), (3,1), (2,2), (1,3), (0,4). - (4,0) -> (4-4+0, 6-0+4) = (0,10). Goal reached. This requires flipping 4 H and 0 T from (4,6), which is possible.
Thus, a path of 3 attempts exists: (10,0) -> (6,4) -> (4,6) -> (0,10).

Using the $(o,e)$ state (number of coins flipped odd/even times):
Initial state: (0,10) (all coins flipped 0 times, even). Target state: (10,0) (all coins flipped an odd number of times).
Attempt 1: From (0,10). Flip 4 coins. All must be from the ‘even’ group (y=4, x=0). New state: (0-0+4, 10-4+0) = (4,6).
Attempt 2: From (4,6). Flip 4 coins (x from odd, y from even; x+y=4, x<=4, y<=6). Possible (x,y): (0,4), (1,3), (2,2), (3,1), (4,0). - (0,4) -> (4-0+4, 6-4+0) = (8,2)
– (1,3) -> (4-1+3, 6-3+1) = (6,4)
– (2,2) -> (4-2+2, 6-2+2) = (4,6)
– (3,1) -> (4-3+1, 6-1+3) = (2,8)
– (4,0) -> (4-4+0, 6-0+4) = (0,10)
Attempt 3: From (6,4). Flip 4 coins (x from odd, y from even; x+y=4, x<=6, y<=4). Possible (x,y): (0,4), (1,3), (2,2), (3,1), (4,0). - (0,4) -> (6-0+4, 4-4+0) = (10,0). Goal reached. Requires picking 0 coins from the 6 odd coins and 4 coins from the 4 even coins, possible.
This also shows a 3-attempt path: (0,10) -> (4,6) -> (6,4) -> (10,0).

Both state models confirm that 3 attempts are sufficient. Minimum steps cannot be less than 3 as shown by exploring states after 1 and 2 steps. Since 3 is not among the options (4, 5, 6, 7), the question or options likely contain an error. If forced to choose from the provided options and accepting the provided answer might be 5 (Option B), it suggests a constraint was missed or a more complex sequence is required. However, standard puzzle analysis leads to 3.

39. Consider the following years : 1600, 1700, 1800, 1900, 2000, 2100, 220

Consider the following years :
1600, 1700, 1800, 1900, 2000, 2100, 2200, 2300 and 2400
How many leap years are there in the above?

None
3
6
9
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2012
The correct option is B, indicating there are 3 leap years among the given years.
A year is a leap year if it is divisible by 4, unless it is a century year. Century years are leap years only if they are divisible by 400.
The given years are 1600, 1700, 1800, 1900, 2000, 2100, 2200, 2300, and 2400.
– 1600 is divisible by 400 (1600 / 400 = 4), so it is a leap year.
– 1700 is divisible by 100 but not by 400 (1700 / 400 = 4.25), so it is not a leap year.
– 1800 is divisible by 100 but not by 400 (1800 / 400 = 4.5), so it is not a leap year.
– 1900 is divisible by 100 but not by 400 (1900 / 400 = 4.75), so it is not a leap year.
– 2000 is divisible by 400 (2000 / 400 = 5), so it is a leap year.
– 2100 is divisible by 100 but not by 400 (2100 / 400 = 5.25), so it is not a leap year.
– 2200 is divisible by 100 but not by 400 (2200 / 400 = 5.5), so it is not a leap year.
– 2300 is divisible by 100 but not by 400 (2300 / 400 = 5.75), so it is not a leap year.
– 2400 is divisible by 400 (2400 / 400 = 6), so it is a leap year.
The leap years in the list are 1600, 2000, and 2400. There are 3 leap years.

40. The President of India has recently given approval to establish separa

The President of India has recently given approval to establish separate High Courts in three of the North-Eastern States of India. Which one among the following is not among them?

Arunachal Pradesh
Manipur
Meghalaya
Tripura
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2012
In 2013, separate High Courts were established for the North-Eastern states of Meghalaya, Manipur, and Tripura. Prior to this, these states were under the jurisdiction of the Gauhati High Court (which covers Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, and Arunachal Pradesh). Therefore, Arunachal Pradesh was not among the three states that received a separate High Court in this move; it continues to be under the jurisdiction of the Gauhati High Court.
High Courts are established for states or groups of states in India. Several North-Eastern states historically shared the Gauhati High Court due to geographical and logistical reasons.
The creation of separate High Courts for Meghalaya, Manipur, and Tripura fulfilled a long-standing demand and aimed at improving the administration of justice in these states. Nagaland, Mizoram, and Arunachal Pradesh continue to have benches of the Gauhati High Court.

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