51. What is the correct sequence for treatment of polluted surface water ?

What is the correct sequence for treatment of polluted surface water ?

  • 1. Disinfection and fluoridation
  • 2. Screening and mixing
  • 3. Flocculation and sedimentation
  • 4. Filtration and sludge processing

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1-2-3-4
3-4-1-2
2-3-4-1
3-2-1-4
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2011
The correct sequence for the typical treatment of polluted surface water from the given options is 2-3-4-1. This corresponds to Screening & mixing, followed by Flocculation & sedimentation, then Filtration & sludge processing, and finally Disinfection & fluoridation.
The standard sequence of surface water treatment involves removing large debris (screening), coagulating small particles (mixing, flocculation), settling the flocs (sedimentation), removing remaining suspended particles (filtration), and killing microorganisms (disinfection). Optional steps like fluoridation are added after disinfection. Sludge processing is a parallel or subsequent treatment for the solid waste generated.
The complete conventional water treatment process typically includes: 1. Screening (removes large debris), 2. Aeration (optional, adds oxygen), 3. Coagulation (chemicals added to neutralize charges), 4. Flocculation (gentle mixing to form larger flocs), 5. Sedimentation/Clarification (settling of flocs), 6. Filtration (removes smaller particles), 7. Disinfection (kills pathogens, e.g., chlorination, UV, ozonation), 8. pH adjustment (if needed), 9. Fluoridation (optional, adds fluoride for dental health), 10. Sludge treatment (handling waste from sedimentation and filtration). The provided options represent key stages in this overall process in sequential order.

52. Tsunami causes devastation near the coast of the sea as the speed of t

Tsunami causes devastation near the coast of the sea as the speed of the sonic waves generated at the epicentre is

directly proportional to the depth of the sea
inversely proportional to the depth of the sea
directly proportional to the distance between the coast and epicentre
inversely proportional to the distance between the coast and epicentre
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2011
The correct option is A) directly proportional to the depth of the sea.
The speed of a tsunami wave (a shallow-water wave in terms of wavelength relative to depth) is determined by the formula v = sqrt(g * d), where ‘v’ is speed, ‘g’ is the acceleration due to gravity, and ‘d’ is the depth of the water. This formula shows that the wave speed is directly proportional to the square root of the depth. Therefore, in deeper water, tsunamis travel faster, and as they approach the shallower coast, they slow down.
Although the relationship is precisely proportional to the square root of the depth, among the given options, “directly proportional to the depth of the sea” is the correct representation that speed increases with depth. In the open ocean, where the depth is great, tsunamis can travel at hundreds of kilometers per hour. Near the coast, the decrease in depth causes the wave to decelerate significantly, leading to the stacking up of energy and a dramatic increase in wave height as it breaks upon the shore.

53. Vehicles carrying inflammable materials usually have metallic ropes to

Vehicles carrying inflammable materials usually have metallic ropes touching the ground during motion in order to

control the speed of the vehicle
conduct the charge produced by friction
conduct the current produced by inflammable material
provide earthing for lightning
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2011
The correct option is B) conduct the charge produced by friction.
Vehicles carrying inflammable materials can build up static electric charge due to the friction between the vehicle’s tyres and the road, the movement of the liquid/gas within the tank, or friction with air. This static charge can accumulate on the vehicle body. The metallic rope touching the ground provides a path for this charge to be safely conducted away into the earth, preventing the build-up of static electricity and eliminating the risk of a spark that could ignite the inflammable material.
Static electricity is a significant hazard when transporting inflammable substances. Dissipating the charge through earthing (grounding) prevents electrostatic discharge sparks, which could cause a fire or explosion. The metallic rope serves as a conductor connected to the vehicle chassis, ensuring continuous contact with the ground during motion.

54. In the Constitution of India, the word ‘Federal’ is used in

In the Constitution of India, the word ‘Federal’ is used in

the Preamble
Part III
Article 368
nowhere
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2011
The correct option is D) nowhere.
The Constitution of India describes India as a “Union of States” in Article 1. Although the Indian political system exhibits features of both federal and unitary governments (often described as quasi-federal), the term “Federal” is not explicitly used in the text of the Constitution.
The Constitution establishes a dual polity with distinct powers for the Union and State governments (federal feature), but also vests significant powers with the Centre, providing for a strong unitary bias. Legal scholars and the Supreme Court have described the Indian system in various ways, but the foundational document itself avoids using the term ‘federal’.

55. Which of the following is/are the part/parts of the procedure for the

Which of the following is/are the part/parts of the procedure for the impeachment of a Judge of the Supreme Court of India ?

  • 1. A motion signed by atleast 100 members of Lok Sabha or 50 members of Rajya Sabha is delivered to the Speaker or Chairman.
  • 2. The motion is investigated by a Committee of three Jurists constituted by the Speaker or Chairman.
  • 3. The Judge will be removed by the Speaker or Chairman if the Committee of three Jurists recommends.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1, 2 and 3
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2011
The correct option is B) 1 and 2 only.
Statement 1 correctly describes the initiation of the impeachment procedure in Parliament. Statement 2 correctly describes the mandatory investigation by a three-member committee constituted by the presiding officer. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Speaker or Chairman does not remove the judge; removal requires a vote in *both* Houses of Parliament by a special majority, followed by an order from the President.
The procedure for removal of a Supreme Court or High Court Judge is governed by Article 124(4) and the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. The process involves the initiation of a motion in Parliament, investigation by a committee, and if the committee finds grounds for removal, consideration and voting by each House of Parliament. The motion for removal must be passed by a special majority in both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha before it is sent to the President for the final order of removal.

56. Import substitution implies

Import substitution implies

importing new items in place of old items of import
gradual reduction of imported goods to save foreign exchange
increasing domestic supply of goods by imposing import restrictions
replacing import items by domestic production of such items
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2011
The correct option is D) replacing import items by domestic production of such items.
Import substitution is an economic strategy where a country aims to reduce its dependence on foreign imports by promoting domestic production of goods that were previously imported. The core idea is to replace imported goods with domestically manufactured ones.
Import substitution industrialization (ISI) was a popular development strategy in many developing countries, particularly in the mid-20th century. It often involves using protectionist measures like tariffs and quotas to make imports more expensive or difficult, thereby encouraging domestic industries to develop and produce these goods. While a potential outcome might be saving foreign exchange (Option B) and tools might involve import restrictions (Option C), the definition is the act of replacing imports with domestic production.

57. Which one among the following is *not* a component of fiscal policy ?

Which one among the following is *not* a component of fiscal policy ?

Taxation policy
Public debt policy
Trade policy
Public expenditure policy
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2011
The correct option is C) Trade policy.
Fiscal policy refers to the use of government spending and taxation to influence the economy. It includes decisions about government revenue (taxation policy), government expenditure (public expenditure policy), and how the government manages its finances, including borrowing (public debt policy). Trade policy, which deals with international trade regulations like tariffs, quotas, and agreements, is a part of overall economic policy but is distinct from fiscal policy.
Fiscal policy is primarily concerned with the government’s budget – how it earns income (mostly through taxes) and how it spends money. These decisions impact aggregate demand, inflation, employment, and economic growth. Monetary policy, controlled by the central bank, is another major tool for influencing the economy, dealing with interest rates and money supply. Trade policy falls under the broader umbrella of economic policy but is not typically classified as a component of *fiscal* policy.

58. The Nagar style of architecture developed mostly in

The Nagar style of architecture developed mostly in

South India
North India
North-West India
North-East India
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2011
The correct option is B) North India.
Indian temple architecture is broadly classified into three styles: Nagar, Dravida, and Vesara. The Nagar style, characterized by its curvilinear shikhara (spire), developed and is predominantly found in the northern regions of India, extending into central and eastern parts as well.
The Nagar style typically includes a sanctuary (garbhagriha) and one or more mandapas (halls) covered by shikharas. Examples include the Khajuraho temples, Sun Temple at Konark, Lingaraj Temple at Bhubaneswar, and temples in Rajasthan and Gujarat. The Dravida style is found in South India and features tiered pyramidal towers (vimanas). The Vesara style, found in the Deccan, is a hybrid blend of Nagar and Dravida characteristics.

59. India is a land of many beautiful ancient temples. Which one among the

India is a land of many beautiful ancient temples. Which one among the following temples displays the most extensive and sumptuous rock-cut shrines and is the most marvellous architectural freak in India ?

The Rath temple at Mamallapuram
The Kailash temple at Ellora
The Chaturbhuja-Vishnu temple at Khajuraho
The Kailash temple at Kanchi
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2011
The correct option is B) The Kailash temple at Ellora.
The description “most extensive and sumptuous rock-cut shrines” and “most marvellous architectural freak” perfectly fits the Kailash Temple (Cave 16) at Ellora. It is a monolithic structure carved out of a single rock face, designed to replicate a structural temple, and is unparalleled in scale and craftsmanship among rock-cut monuments in India.
The Kailash Temple at Ellora, built by the Rashtrakuta dynasty (likely under King Krishna I in the 8th century), is one of the most spectacular examples of Indian rock-cut architecture. It is carved top-down from a single massive rock, creating a complete temple complex with a main shrine, gateway, pavilions, and courtyard. The Rath temples at Mamallapuram are also monolithic but are much smaller and less complex. The temples at Khajuraho and the Kailasanatha temple at Kanchi are structural temples, built stone by stone, not rock-cut.

60. The Bahmani architecture in the Deccan is marked by its distinct origi

The Bahmani architecture in the Deccan is marked by its distinct originality and independent style. Which of the following statements about Bahmani architecture are correct ?

  • 1. It derived its elements from the architectural styles of the Delhi Sultanate and that of distant Persia.
  • 2. The forts built by the Bahmanis were undoubtedly the greatest monuments far exceeding any of the same period in Europe.
  • 3. Bahmani architecture did reflect a harmonious blend of both Hindu and Islamic styles.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1, 2 and 3
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2011
The correct option is C) 1 and 3 only.
Statement 1 is correct as Bahmani architecture blended influences from the Delhi Sultanate (especially Tughlaq styles) and Persia. Statement 3 is correct because, like much Indo-Islamic architecture, Bahmani structures incorporated local Indian craftsmanship and decorative elements, resulting in a blend of styles. Statement 2 is an exaggeration and is incorrect; while Bahmani forts like Gulbarga and Bidar were impressive, claiming they “far exceeded any of the same period in Europe” is not historically accurate or justifiable.
Bahmani architecture features characteristics such as large domes, tall minarets, arcades, and the use of stucco work, tiles (especially Persian tiles), and intricate carvings. Examples include the Jami Masjid at Gulbarga (unique for its covered prayer hall), the tomb of Muhammad Shah I, and the fortified cities of Bidar and Gulbarga. The influence from Delhi Sultanate architecture (transferred by artisans moving south) and Persian styles (due to connections with Persia) is evident. Local Indian artistic skills were also employed, contributing to the fusion of styles, although the degree of Hindu-Islamic fusion can be debated compared to later periods.