2010

81. During free fall of an object :

During free fall of an object :

[amp_mcq option1=”its potential energy increases and its kinetic energy decreases.” option2=”its potential energy decreases and its kinetic energy increases.” option3=”both its potential energy and kinetic energy increase.” option4=”both its potential energy and kinetic energy decrease.” correct=”option2″]

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During free fall of an object, its potential energy decreases and its kinetic energy increases.
– Free fall is defined as motion under the influence of gravity only.
– Potential energy (PE) due to gravity is given by mgh, where m is mass, g is acceleration due to gravity, and h is height. As an object falls, its height (h) decreases, so its potential energy decreases.
– Kinetic energy (KE) is given by 0.5mv², where m is mass and v is velocity. As an object falls under gravity, its speed (v) increases (due to acceleration ‘g’), so its kinetic energy increases.
– In ideal free fall (neglecting air resistance), the total mechanical energy (PE + KE) is conserved. The decrease in potential energy is equal to the increase in kinetic energy.
If air resistance is considered, some of the potential energy is converted into heat and sound energy due to air friction, and the increase in kinetic energy is less than the decrease in potential energy. However, the question refers to ‘free fall’ which typically implies ideal conditions unless specified otherwise.

82. The Earth travels on its orbit at a speed of approximately 4400 km per

The Earth travels on its orbit at a speed of approximately 4400 km per hour. Why do we not feel this high speed ?

[amp_mcq option1=”We are too small compared to the size of the Earth” option2=”Our relative speed with respect to the Earth along the Earth’s orbit is zero” option3=”The gravity of the Earth constantly pulls us towards the Earth’s centre” option4=”The solar system as a whole is also moving” correct=”option2″]

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We do not feel the high speed of Earth’s orbit because our relative speed with respect to the Earth along the Earth’s orbit is zero.
– We are moving along with the Earth at the same speed and in the same direction as it orbits the sun.
– In physics, we typically feel acceleration (changes in speed or direction), not constant velocity. Since our velocity relative to the Earth’s surface (for the orbital motion) is zero and remains zero, we don’t feel the orbital speed.
– This is related to the concept of inertial frames of reference. We are in the same inertial frame as the Earth’s surface for this motion.
While the Earth is constantly accelerating towards the sun due to gravity (causing its curved path), this acceleration is relatively small (about 0.006 m/s²) and is the same for everything on Earth, so we don’t feel it as a distinct force pulling us away from the vertical. Other motions, like Earth’s rotation, do have slight effects (e.g., centrifugal force), but the primary reason for not feeling the vast orbital speed is being co-moving with the Earth.

83. The Stethoscope used by a medical practitioner is based on the phenome

The Stethoscope used by a medical practitioner is based on the phenomenon of :

[amp_mcq option1=”multiple reflection of sound waves.” option2=”scattering of sound waves.” option3=”refraction of sound waves.” option4=”none of the above.” correct=”option1″]

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The stethoscope works based on the phenomenon of multiple reflection of sound waves.
– Sound waves generated inside the body (like heartbeats or breathing sounds) are collected by the diaphragm (or bell) of the stethoscope.
– These sound waves travel through the hollow tube. As they travel, they undergo multiple reflections off the inner walls of the tube.
– These repeated reflections guide the sound waves towards the earpieces, concentrating the sound and making it audible to the medical practitioner.
While sound can scatter or refract, the primary mechanism by which sound is transmitted and focused through the stethoscope tube to the listener’s ears is multiple internal reflection.

84. Consider the following statements: 1. The Government of India has es

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. The Government of India has established NITI Aayog as a replacement for the Planning Commission.
  • 2. NITI Aayog operates as a think tank, providing policy guidance.
  • 3. The Prime Minister of India is the Chairperson of NITI Aayog.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”Only one” option2=”Only two” option3=”All three” option4=”None” correct=”option3″]

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All three statements about NITI Aayog are correct.
– Statement 1 is correct: NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) was established on January 1, 2015, by a resolution of the Union Cabinet, replacing the erstwhile Planning Commission.
– Statement 2 is correct: NITI Aayog functions primarily as a policy ‘think tank’ of the Government of India, providing strategic and technical advice on economic policy matters.
– Statement 3 is correct: The Prime Minister of India is the ex-officio Chairperson of NITI Aayog.
NITI Aayog aims to foster cooperative federalism by involving State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process. It has two Hubs: Team India Hub (interface between States and Centre) and Knowledge and Innovation Hub (builds the institution’s think-tank capabilities).

85. Which one of the following best describes the term ‘Quantitative

Which one of the following best describes the term ‘Quantitative Easing’?

[amp_mcq option1=”It is a policy tool used by central banks to inject liquidity into the financial system.” option2=”It is a policy tool used by governments to stimulate economic growth.” option3=”It is a monetary policy tool used to control inflation.” option4=”It is a fiscal policy tool used to reduce government debt.” correct=”option1″]

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Quantitative Easing (QE) is a monetary policy tool used by central banks.
– Quantitative Easing is a form of unconventional monetary policy used by central banks to stimulate the economy when standard monetary policy (like lowering interest rates) is no longer effective (e.g., when interest rates are near zero).
– It involves the central bank purchasing long-term securities from the open market to increase the money supply and encourage lending and investment. This injects liquidity into the financial system.
– It is distinct from traditional monetary policy aimed solely at controlling inflation via interest rates, and it is not a fiscal policy tool used by the government.
QE aims to lower long-term interest rates and increase the money supply, making it cheaper for businesses and consumers to borrow money, thereby stimulating economic activity. It is typically employed during times of economic crisis or recession.

86. Consider the following statements: 1. The National Legal Services A

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) was established under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
  • 2. The Chief Justice of India is the Patron-in-Chief of NALSA.
  • 3. The State Legal Services Authority (SLSA) is headed by the Chief Justice of the High Court of the State.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”1 and 3 only” option3=”2 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option4″]

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All three statements regarding NALSA and SLSA are correct.
– NALSA was indeed constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free legal services to eligible weaker sections of society and to organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes.
– The Chief Justice of India is the ex-officio Patron-in-Chief of NALSA.
– The State Legal Services Authority (SLSA) is headed by the Chief Justice of the respective High Court who is the Patron-in-Chief, and a retired or serving Judge of the High Court or the District Judge is nominated as its Executive Chairman. The statement says it is headed by the Chief Justice of the High Court, which is correct in the capacity of Patron-in-Chief.
The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 also provides for the establishment of Legal Services Authorities at the District Level (District Legal Services Authority – DLSA) and Taluk Level (Taluk Legal Services Committee – TLSC). DLSAs are headed by the District Judge as Chairman.

87. Consider the following statements: 1. The President of India can su

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. The President of India can summon a joint sitting of the Parliament.
  • 2. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of the Parliament.
  • 3. The Vice-President of India presides over a joint sitting of the Parliament if the Speaker is absent.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”1 and 3 only” option3=”2 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option1″]

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Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect.
– Statement 1: Article 108 of the Constitution provides for the President to summon a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament in certain cases of disagreement over a bill. This statement is correct.
– Statement 2: As per Article 118(4) of the Constitution, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses. This statement is correct.
– Statement 3: If the Speaker is absent from a joint sitting, the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides. If both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are absent, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides. The Vice-President of India, who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, does *not* preside over a joint sitting. This statement is incorrect.
Joint sittings are rare and are typically summoned to resolve deadlocks on ordinary bills. They are not applicable to Money Bills or Constitution Amendment Bills. The rules of procedure for a joint sitting are made by the President after consultation with the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

88. Consider the following statements: 1. The Inter-State Council is es

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. The Inter-State Council is established under Article 263 of the Constitution of India.
  • 2. The Inter-State Council is a permanent constitutional body.
  • 3. The Prime Minister of India is the Chairman of the Inter-State Council.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”1 and 3 only” option3=”2 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option2″]

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Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.
– Statement 1: The Inter-State Council is established under Article 263 of the Constitution of India, which empowers the President to constitute such a body. This statement is correct.
– Statement 2: Article 263 states that the President *may* establish such a Council *if at any time it appears to him that the public interests would be served*. This makes it a constitutional body but not a permanent one in the sense of being mandatorily required to exist at all times by the Constitution (unlike, for example, the Election Commission or Finance Commission). While it has been constituted and is a standing body since 1990, classifying it as a “permanent constitutional body” is generally considered inaccurate in comparison to bodies whose existence is explicitly mandated as permanent by the Constitution. This statement is incorrect.
– Statement 3: The Prime Minister of India is the Chairman of the Inter-State Council. This is explicitly stated in the order constituting the Council. This statement is correct.
The Council’s functions are advisory, providing a forum for discussion and recommendation on disputes between states, investigation and discussion of subjects of common interest, and recommendations for better coordination of policy and action. The council consists of the Prime Minister as Chairman, Chief Ministers of all States, Chief Ministers of Union Territories with Legislative Assemblies, and Administrators of UTs without Legislative Assemblies, and six Union Cabinet Ministers.

89. Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Green

Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Green Bonds’?

[amp_mcq option1=”They are bonds issued by governments to fund environmental projects.” option2=”They are bonds issued by corporations to fund green initiatives.” option3=”They are bonds issued to finance projects that have environmental benefits.” option4=”They are bonds issued to finance renewable energy projects only.” correct=”option3″]

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Option C best describes the term ‘Green Bonds’.
– Green Bonds are a type of bond specifically earmarked to raise money for climate and environmental projects.
– They can be issued by various entities, including governments (sovereign, state, municipal), intergovernmental organizations, and corporations. Options A and B are partially correct by mentioning specific issuers but are not comprehensive.
– The crucial characteristic of a green bond is that the proceeds are used to finance projects with environmental benefits. These projects can include renewable energy, energy efficiency, sustainable waste management, sustainable land use, biodiversity conservation, clean transportation, sustainable water management, climate change adaptation, etc. Option D is too restrictive by limiting it only to renewable energy projects.
– Option C provides the most accurate and broad description of what a green bond is used for.
The green bond market follows guidelines developed by organizations like the International Capital Market Association (ICMA), such as the Green Bond Principles, which recommend the use of proceeds, project evaluation, management of proceeds, and reporting.

90. Consider the following statements: 1. The Minimum Support Price (MS

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. The Minimum Support Price (MSP) for agricultural crops is determined by the Central Government.
  • 2. The MSP is based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
  • 3. The MSP is mandatory for procurement of agricultural produce by the government agencies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”1 and 3 only” option3=”2 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option1″]

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Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect.
– Statement 1: The Minimum Support Price (MSP) for various agricultural crops is fixed or determined by the Central Government, specifically by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA). This statement is correct.
– Statement 2: The CCEA fixes the MSP based on the recommendations provided by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). This statement is correct.
– Statement 3: MSP is the price at which the government agencies, like FCI, procure certain crops from farmers. However, it is not legally mandatory for all government agencies or market participants to procure *all* agricultural produce at MSP. Procurement policies vary by crop and state, and the effectiveness of MSP as a floor price depends on the extent of procurement and market conditions. The statement “MSP is mandatory for procurement of agricultural produce by the government agencies” is too absolute and not entirely reflective of the ground reality or policy design for all crops under MSP. This statement is incorrect.
MSP is intended to protect farmers from price volatility and ensure a minimum profitable price. While government procurement at MSP is a key mechanism, it doesn’t cover all crops equally or ensure procurement of the entire marketable surplus for every farmer.
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