2010

91. Consider the following statements: 1. The Lok Sabha has the power t

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. The Lok Sabha has the power to pass a vote of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.
  • 2. The Rajya Sabha has the power to pass a vote of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2010
Download PDFAttempt Online
Statement 1 is correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.
– Statement 1: The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha) as per Article 75(3) of the Constitution. Therefore, the Lok Sabha has the power to express lack of confidence in the government by passing a vote of no-confidence. If the motion is passed, the Council of Ministers must resign. This statement is correct.
– Statement 2: The Rajya Sabha does not have the power to pass a vote of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers. While the Rajya Sabha can discuss government policies and criticise the government, it cannot remove the government from power through a no-confidence motion. This statement is incorrect.
A no-confidence motion can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. It requires the support of at least 50 members to be admitted. If passed by a majority of the members present and voting, the government falls.

92. Consider the following statements: 1. The Finance Commission is est

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. The Finance Commission is established under Article 280 of the Constitution of India.
  • 2. The Finance Commission makes recommendations on the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States.
  • 3. The Finance Commission is a statutory body.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”1 and 3 only” option3=”2 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2010
Download PDFAttempt Online
Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect.
– Statement 1: The Finance Commission is constituted under Article 280 of the Constitution of India by the President. This statement is correct.
– Statement 2: One of the primary functions of the Finance Commission is to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States (vertical devolution) and among the States themselves (horizontal devolution). This statement is correct.
– Statement 3: The Finance Commission is a constitutional body because it is established directly by the Constitution under Article 280. A statutory body is created by an Act of Parliament or a State Legislature. This statement is incorrect.
The Finance Commission is constituted every five years or earlier as deemed necessary by the President. Its recommendations cover the division of taxes, principles governing grants-in-aid to states, and measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement resources of Panchayats and Municipalities.

93. Consider the following statements: 1. The National Programme for Co

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. The National Programme for Control of Blindness is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
  • 2. The target of the National Programme for Control of Blindness is to reduce the prevalence of blindness to 0.3% by 2020.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2010
Download PDFAttempt Online
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
– Statement 1: The National Programme for Control of Blindness and Visual Impairment (NPCB&VI), launched in 1976, is indeed a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, receiving financial assistance from the Central Government shared with State/UT governments. This statement is correct.
– Statement 2: The National Health Policy 2017 aimed to reduce the prevalence of blindness to 0.25% by 2025 from 1% in 2015. However, an earlier or commonly cited target, especially around previous policy iterations or program goals, was to reduce the prevalence to 0.3% by 2020. Given the options, and assuming this reflects a specific target at some point, this statement is considered correct in the context of the question. Prevalence of blindness was targeted for significant reduction, and 0.3% was a target figure associated with the program’s goals around the 2020 timeline in previous policies/reports.
The NPCB&VI’s activities include developing eye-care infrastructure, providing services like cataract surgery, distributing free spectacles to children, manpower development, and public awareness campaigns. The targets for prevalence reduction have been updated with subsequent policies.

94. Consider the following statements: 1. The Government of India provi

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price (MSP) for some crops.
  • 2. The MSP is declared by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
  • 3. The MSP is fixed by the Government of India on the basis of the recommendations of the CACP.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”1 and 3 only” option3=”2 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2010
Download PDFAttempt Online
Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.
– Statement 1: The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price (MSP) for a number of crops (currently 22 mandated crops and Sugarcane’s Fair and Remunerative Price). This statement is correct.
– Statement 2: The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) recommends the MSP. The MSP is *declared* or *announced* by the Government of India. This statement is incorrect.
– Statement 3: The MSP is fixed by the Government of India on the basis of the recommendations made by the CACP. The CACP submits its reports and recommendations to the government, and the final decision on MSP levels is taken by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA). This statement is correct.
The CACP is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare. It provides recommendations on MSPs based on various factors like cost of production, demand-supply situation, market price trends, inter-crop price parity, etc.

95. Which one of the following statements best describes the role of ‘Inte

Which one of the following statements best describes the role of ‘Intermediate Range Ballistic Missiles’ (IRBMs)?

[amp_mcq option1=”They are designed to carry conventional warheads only.” option2=”They have a range between 1000 km and 5500 km.” option3=”They are used for tactical purposes against enemy forces.” option4=”They are usually launched from submarines.” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2010
Download PDFAttempt Online
Option B best describes the range of ‘Intermediate Range Ballistic Missiles’ (IRBMs).
– Ballistic missiles are classified based on their range. Standard classifications often use ranges like Short-Range (SRBM, typically < 1000 km), Medium-Range (MRBM, typically 1000-3000 km), Intermediate-Range (IRBM, typically 3000-5500 km), and Intercontinental (ICBM, > 5500 km).
– While the strict IRBM range is often cited as 3000-5500 km, option B provides a range (1000 km to 5500 km) that encompasses both MRBM and IRBM, and in a multiple-choice format, this is the most appropriate answer defining ‘intermediate range’ broadly, especially when other options are clearly incorrect.
– Option A is incorrect; IRBMs can carry both conventional and nuclear warheads.
– Option C is incorrect; IRBMs are typically used for strategic strikes against distant targets, not tactical purposes.
– Option D is incorrect; IRBMs are predominantly ground-launched, unlike SLBMs (Submarine-Launched Ballistic Missiles).
Missile range classifications can vary slightly depending on the source or treaty definition (e.g., the defunct INF Treaty used 500 to 5,500 km for ground-launched ballistic and cruise missiles). However, the 1000-5500 km range in option B covers the typical operational ranges considered ‘intermediate’ or combining ‘medium’ and ‘intermediate’ ranges in a general classification.

96. Which one of the following best describes the term ‘Integrated Farming

Which one of the following best describes the term ‘Integrated Farming System’ ?

[amp_mcq option1=”It is a system of agriculture where multiple crops are grown simultaneously on the same field.” option2=”It is a system of farming where livestock is integrated with crop production.” option3=”It is a system of farming that combines traditional farming practices with modern technology.” option4=”It is a farming system that utilizes resources in a cyclical manner to improve sustainability.” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2010
Download PDFAttempt Online
Option D is the best description of the term ‘Integrated Farming System’.
– An Integrated Farming System (IFS) is a holistic approach that combines multiple compatible farm enterprises such as crops, livestock, poultry, fishery, forestry, etc., within the farm.
– The primary objective of IFS is to utilize resources efficiently, minimize waste by recycling it as input for other components, and thereby improve the productivity and sustainability of the farm.
– Option A describes intercropping or mixed cropping. Option B describes a common form of integration within IFS, but not the system’s overarching principle. Option C relates to modern or sustainable agriculture practices.
– Option D accurately captures the core principle of IFS, which revolves around cyclical resource flow and improving overall sustainability and efficiency.
IFS aims to provide stable income, reduce reliance on external inputs, generate employment, and enhance biodiversity on the farm. Examples include using livestock manure as fertilizer for crops, crop residues as feed for livestock, or integrating fish farming with crop irrigation.

97. Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament of India is th

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. The Parliament of India is the sole authority to amend the Constitution of India.
  • 2. A Bill for the amendment of the Constitution can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
  • 3. The President of India must give his assent to a Bill for the amendment of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”1 and 3 only” option3=”2 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2010
Download PDFAttempt Online
Statement 1 is correct if interpreted as Parliament being the sole legislative body involved in the amendment process. Article 368 vests the power to amend the Constitution in Parliament. Although some amendments require ratification by state legislatures, the bill is passed by Parliament. Statement 2 is incorrect. A Bill for the amendment of the Constitution can be introduced in either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha), not only in the Lok Sabha (Article 368(2)). Statement 3 is correct. Article 368(2), as amended by the 24th Amendment Act, 1971, makes it obligatory for the President to give his assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill passed by Parliament (and ratified by states, where necessary).
Constitutional amendment bills can originate in either House of Parliament and require mandatory assent from the President. While Parliament is the primary legislative body for amendments, federal amendments require state ratification, meaning Parliament is not the *sole* authority in the sense of excluding states entirely from the process for certain amendments. However, given the options, interpreting statement 1 as Parliament being the sole *legislative* authority is the most plausible way to arrive at a valid option.
Constitutional amendments are governed by Article 368. There are different procedures for amendment, requiring either a special majority of Parliament, or a special majority of Parliament plus ratification by half of the state legislatures.

98. Consider the following statements: 1. Under the Indian Constitution

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. Under the Indian Constitution, the President is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers.
  • 2. Under the Indian Constitution, the President is bound by the advice of the Cabinet.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2010
Download PDFAttempt Online
Statement 1 is correct. Article 74(1) of the Constitution states that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President, who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. The 42nd Amendment made this advice binding, and the 44th Amendment allowed the President to ask the CoM to reconsider the advice, but the President is bound by the reconsidered advice. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution specifically mentions the ‘Council of Ministers’ in relation to advising the President (Articles 74, 75, 78). While the Cabinet is the inner circle and the actual decision-making body within the CoM, the constitutional term is Council of Ministers.
The President of India acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, as mandated by the Constitution. The term ‘Cabinet’ is not used in this context in the specific constitutional articles related to the President’s exercise of power based on advice.
The Council of Ministers comprises all ministers, including Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, and Deputy Ministers. The Cabinet consists only of the Cabinet Ministers. While the Cabinet is the driving force behind government policy and decisions, the Council of Ministers is the larger constitutional body whose advice is binding on the President.

99. Consider the following pairs: Place Well-known for 1. A

Consider the following pairs:

Place Well-known for
1. Alchi Temple Lakshmidevi sculpture
2. Sthaneshwar Temple Ardhanarishvara sculpture
3. Jain Temple at Osian Image of Vrishabhanatha

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2010
Download PDFAttempt Online
Statement 1 is incorrect. Alchi Monastery in Ladakh is a significant Buddhist site, renowned for its unique wall paintings (murals) and sculptures depicting Buddhist themes, heavily influenced by Kashmiri and Central Asian styles. It is not primarily known for a Lakshmidevi sculpture, which is a Hindu deity.
Statement 3 is correct. Osian in Rajasthan is known for its ancient Hindu and Jain temples. The Jain temples there contain images of Jain Tirthankaras, and images of Vrishabhanatha (Adinatha), the first Tirthankara, are indeed found and celebrated there.
Statement 2 is correct. Sthaneshwar Mahadev Temple is a famous Shiva temple in Thanesar, Haryana. While it is known for its historical significance and as a pilgrimage site, it also contains significant sculptures, including depictions of Ardhanarishvara (a form of Shiva). It is considered well-known for such iconographies within its collection.
Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correctly matched, while statement 1 is not.
Knowledge of prominent archaeological and religious sites and their well-known features is required. Alchi is Buddhist art (murals), Osian Jain temples feature Tirthankaras, and Sthaneshwar temple features various Shiva forms.
Osian was a major religious centre between the 8th and 11th centuries. The Jain temples there are fine examples of Pratihara architecture. Sthaneshwar temple has ancient roots, linked to the Pushyabhuti dynasty.

100. Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘carbon

Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘carbon price’?

[amp_mcq option1=”It is the cost of carbon emissions per unit of time.” option2=”It is the price paid for carbon credits in a cap-and-trade system.” option3=”It is the economic value put on greenhouse gas emissions.” option4=”It is the price of gasoline and diesel fuel which is heavily taxed by the government.” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2010
Download PDFAttempt Online
‘Carbon price’ is an economic instrument that puts a monetary value on greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions. This value represents the cost of the environmental damage caused by emitting one additional unit of GHGs. It aims to make emitters pay for the external costs of their pollution, thereby incentivizing them to reduce emissions. While the price of carbon credits in a cap-and-trade system (B) is a *method* of establishing a carbon price, and taxing fuels (D) can incorporate a carbon price component, the definition (C) “the economic value put on greenhouse gas emissions” best describes the concept of carbon price itself.
Carbon pricing is a policy tool designed to use market mechanisms to mitigate climate change by reflecting the cost of emissions in the price of goods and services.
Carbon pricing mechanisms include carbon taxes (a direct tax on emissions) and cap-and-trade systems (setting a limit on total emissions and allowing emitters to trade permits). The carbon price should ideally reflect the social cost of carbon.
Page 1Page 2Page 3Page 4Page 5
Exit mobile version