The correct answer is: Only conclusion II follows.
The first statement, “No gentleman is poor,” can be expressed in logical form as “All gentlemen are non-poor.” The second statement, “All gentlemen are rich,” can be expressed in logical form as “All gentlemen are rich.”
The first conclusion, “No poor man is rich,” can be expressed in logical form as “No non-rich man is rich.” This conclusion does not follow from the premises, because it is possible for there to be men who are neither gentlemen nor poor. For example, there could be men who are neither rich nor poor, or men who are poor but not gentlemen.
The second conclusion, “No rich man is poor,” can be expressed in logical form as “No rich man is non-rich.” This conclusion does follow from the premises, because the premises state that all gentlemen are rich, and all gentlemen are non-poor. Therefore, all rich men must be non-poor, and hence no rich man can be poor.
Therefore, the correct answer is: Only conclusion II follows.