1002
1112
1012
10102 E. None of the above
Answer is Right!
Answer is Wrong!
The correct answer is $\boxed{\text{E}}$.
To divide 1000112 by 1012, we can use long division. The steps are as follows:
- Write the dividend (1000112) above the divisor (1012).
- Bring down the first digit of the dividend, which is 1.
- How many times does 101 go into 1? 0 times. Write 0 above the 1 in the quotient and 100 below the 101 in the divisor.
- Multiply 100 by 0 and write the product (0) below the 100 in the dividend.
- Subtract 0 from 1, leaving 1.
- Bring down the next digit of the dividend, which is 0.
- How many times does 101 go into 10? 1 time. Write 1 above the 0 in the quotient and 100 below the 101 in the divisor.
- Multiply 100 by 1 and write the product (100) below the 10 in the dividend.
- Subtract 100 from 10, leaving 0.
- Bring down the next digit of the dividend, which is 0.
- How many times does 101 go into 0? 0 times. Write 0 above the 0 in the quotient and 100 below the 101 in the divisor.
- Multiply 100 by 0 and write the product (0) below the 0 in the dividend.
- Subtract 0 from 0, leaving 0.
- Bring down the next digit of the dividend, which is 1.
- How many times does 101 go into 1? 1 time. Write 1 above the 1 in the quotient and 101 below the 101 in the divisor.
- Multiply 101 by 1 and write the product (101) below the 1 in the dividend.
- Subtract 101 from 1, leaving 0.
- Since there is no remainder, the division is complete. The answer is 1000112 ÷ 1012 = 1002.
However, the answer is $\boxed{\text{E}}$, because there is no such number as 1002.