The correct answer is A. Only assumption I is implicit.
The statement “Our shoes are for the rich” does not imply that one can’t become rich unless one has that brand of shoes. It is possible that people who are already rich buy these shoes, or that people who aspire to be rich buy these shoes in the hope that they will help them achieve their goal. However, the statement does not say anything about whether or not owning these shoes is necessary for becoming rich.
Assumption I, on the other hand, is implicit in the statement. The statement implies that people who are rich are likely to buy these shoes. This is because the statement says that the shoes are “for the rich.” This suggests that the shoes are designed for people who are rich, and that they are likely to be appealing to people who are rich.
Assumption II is not implicit in the statement. The statement does not say anything about whether or not owning these shoes will make someone rich. It is possible that owning these shoes will make someone rich, but it is also possible that it will not. The statement does not provide enough information to make a conclusion about whether or not assumption II is true.