The correct answer is: D. the property therein has been transferred to the buyer.
Under the Sale of Goods Act 1979, the goods remain at the seller’s risk until the property therein has been transferred to the buyer. This means that if the goods are damaged or destroyed before the property has been transferred, the seller will be liable for the loss.
Option A is incorrect because the goods may be delivered to the buyer but the property therein may not have been transferred. For example, if the buyer has agreed to pay for the goods on credit, the property will not usually pass until the buyer has paid for the goods.
Option B is incorrect because the goods may be utilised by the buyer but the property therein may not have been transferred. For example, if the buyer has hired the goods, the property will not usually pass until the end of the hire period.
Option C is incorrect because the price to the goods may have been received by the seller but the property therein may not have been transferred. For example, if the buyer has agreed to pay for the goods on credit, the property will not usually pass until the buyer has paid for the goods.
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