41. Which of the following statements regarding ice-cap climate is/are cor

Which of the following statements regarding ice-cap climate is/are correct?

  • 1. In the Koeppen climate classification, the ice-cap climate is signified by the letters EF.
  • 2. It is the Earth’s most severe climate, where the mean monthly temperature is never above 0 degree Celsius.
  • 3. This climate is found in the Pir Panjal and the Great Himalayas.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2024
Statements 1 and 2 are correct regarding the ice-cap climate. Statement 3 is incorrect.
The ice-cap climate (EF) is characterized by permanent ice and snow cover, with mean monthly temperatures always below 0°C. This is the most severe climate on Earth.
1. In the Köppen climate classification, EF denotes the Ice Cap climate.
2. By definition, in EF climate, the average temperature of the warmest month is 0°C (32°F) or below, making it the most severe climate.
3. The Ice Cap climate (EF) is found primarily in continental ice sheets like those covering Antarctica and Greenland. High mountain regions like the Himalayas, even at very high altitudes, typically experience Alpine or Highland climates, which may include permafrost and glacial areas but also have months with mean temperatures above 0°C in some parts, classifying them as ET (Tundra) or other types at lower altitudes.

42. Which one of the following has the highest ionic character?

Which one of the following has the highest ionic character?

BeF₃
SiO₂
NCl₃
K₂S
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2024
Among the given options, K₂S has the highest ionic character.
Ionic character is primarily determined by the electronegativity difference between the bonded atoms. A larger electronegativity difference leads to a more ionic bond. Bonds between highly electropositive metals (Group 1 and 2) and highly electronegative non-metals (Group 16 and 17) are generally ionic.
Approximate electronegativity values: K (0.8), S (2.5), Be (1.5), F (4.0), Si (1.9), O (3.4), N (3.0), Cl (3.2).
Electronegativity differences:
– BeF₃ (assuming Be-F bond in a compound): |4.0 – 1.5| = 2.5. Be compounds often show significant covalent character due to Be²⁺’s high charge density.
– SiO₂ (Si-O bond): |3.4 – 1.9| = 1.5. SiO₂ is a covalent network solid.
– NCl₃ (N-Cl bond): |3.2 – 3.0| = 0.2. This is a covalent molecule.
– K₂S (K-S bond): |2.5 – 0.8| = 1.7. K is a Group 1 metal, S is a non-metal. The bond is predominantly ionic.
While Be-F bond has a larger electronegativity difference, K₂S is formed between a highly electropositive alkali metal (K) and a chalcogen (S), resulting in a typical ionic compound with K⁺ and S²⁻ ions in an ionic lattice. K₂S exhibits more characteristics of an ionic compound compared to BeF₂ (often described as having significant covalent character or being polymeric/covalent in gaseous state) or the definitively covalent SiO₂ and NCl₃.

43. Which of the following catalytic systems is used for the reduction of

Which of the following catalytic systems is used for the reduction of unsaturated hydrocarbon to saturated hydrocarbon?

Copper and H₂
Iron and H₂
Zinc and H₂
Nickel and H₂
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2024
The catalytic system used for the reduction of unsaturated hydrocarbons (like alkenes and alkynes) to saturated hydrocarbons (alkanes) is typically a metal catalyst with hydrogen gas (H₂). Nickel (Ni), Palladium (Pd), and Platinum (Pt) are the most common catalysts for this hydrogenation reaction.
Catalytic hydrogenation adds hydrogen across carbon-carbon double or triple bonds, saturating the hydrocarbon. This process requires a catalyst to facilitate the reaction by adsorbing the reactants onto its surface.
While other metals like copper, iron, and zinc can be involved in various chemical reactions involving hydrogen, Nickel (especially Raney nickel), Palladium, and Platinum are the standard and most effective catalysts for the hydrogenation of unsaturated hydrocarbons under typical laboratory or industrial conditions.

44. The correct order of atomic radius of Li, Na, Be and O is

The correct order of atomic radius of Li, Na, Be and O is

”Na
”Na
”Be
”O
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2024
The correct order of atomic radius from largest to smallest is Na > Li > Be > O.
Atomic radius increases down a group in the periodic table due to the addition of electron shells. Atomic radius generally decreases across a period from left to right due to increasing effective nuclear charge pulling the valence electrons closer to the nucleus.
– Na (Sodium) is in Group 1, Period 3. It has three electron shells.
– Li (Lithium), Be (Beryllium), and O (Oxygen) are all in Period 2. They have two electron shells.
– Comparing Na and Li: Na is below Li in Group 1, so Na > Li in atomic radius.
– Comparing Li, Be, and O: They are in Period 2. Moving from left to right, atomic radius decreases. So, Li > Be > O.
Combining these, the order from largest to smallest is Na > Li > Be > O.

45. Under normal downward sloping demand curve and fully elastic supply cu

Under normal downward sloping demand curve and fully elastic supply curve of a commodity, an exogenous decrease in demand would lead to

increase in equilibrium price and quantity
decrease in equilibrium price and quantity
decrease in equilibrium quantity and no change in price
increase in equilibrium price and no change in quantity
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2024
With a fully elastic supply curve, the supply curve is horizontal at a given price. An exogenous decrease in demand shifts the demand curve leftward. The new equilibrium occurs where the new (shifted) demand curve intersects the horizontal supply curve. Since the supply curve is horizontal, the equilibrium price remains unchanged, but the equilibrium quantity decreases as demand has fallen at that price.
A fully elastic supply curve means producers are willing to supply any quantity at a specific price. Any change in demand under such conditions will only affect the quantity, not the price, as long as the market quantity remains within the range where supply is fully elastic.
An elastic supply curve has infinite elasticity. This typically represents a situation where inputs are readily available at a constant cost, allowing production to expand or contract without affecting the per-unit cost and thus the supply price. In this case, a decrease in demand simply leads to lower sales volume at the prevailing market price.

46. Which one of the following statements is not correct for National Inco

Which one of the following statements is not correct for National Income Accounting for India?

Imports are subtracted in calculating Gross Domestic Product.
Net factor payments earned from abroad are included in Gross Domestic Product.
Purchase and sale of second-hand goods are not included in Gross Domestic Product.
Inventories are included in Gross Domestic Capital Formation.
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2024
Statement B is incorrect. Net factor payments earned from abroad are included when calculating Gross National Product (GNP) or Net National Product (NNP), not Gross Domestic Product (GDP). GDP measures the value of goods and services produced within the geographical boundaries of a country, regardless of who owns the factors of production.
GDP is a measure of production within the domestic territory. GNP is a measure of production by the residents of a country. The difference is Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA). NFIA = Factor income earned by residents from abroad – Factor income paid to non-residents in the domestic territory.
A) Imports are subtracted in calculating GDP using the expenditure method (C+I+G+X-M) as they represent spending on goods/services produced elsewhere.
C) Purchase and sale of second-hand goods are not included in GDP as they do not represent current production. Their value was already accounted for in the GDP of the year they were produced.
D) Change in inventories (unsold goods held by firms) is considered as investment (part of Gross Domestic Capital Formation) and is included in GDP calculation as it represents production that occurred within the period.

47. Which of the following are included in M1 definition of money for the

Which of the following are included in M1 definition of money for the Indian economy?

  • 1. Reserves
  • 2. Currency
  • 3. Time deposits
  • 4. Demand deposits

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 and 3 only
2 and 3
2 and 4
1, 3 and 4
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2024
C) 2 and 4
– In India, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) defines different measures of money supply (M0, M1, M2, M3, M4).
– The definition of M1 is: M1 = Currency with the Public + Demand Deposits with the Banking System + ‘Other’ Deposits with the RBI.
– Based on this definition:
– 1. Reserves: These refer to cash reserves held by commercial banks with the RBI. They are part of the monetary base (M0), not M1. M1 is the money supply held by the non-bank public.
– 2. Currency: Currency notes and coins held by the public are a component of M1.
– 3. Time deposits: These include fixed deposits and recurring deposits. They are less liquid than demand deposits and are included in broader measures of money supply like M2, M3, and M4, but not M1.
– 4. Demand deposits: These are deposits held in current and savings accounts that can be withdrawn on demand (e.g., through cheques or ATM withdrawals). They are a component of M1.
– Therefore, currency and demand deposits are included in the M1 definition of money for the Indian economy.
– The M definitions represent different degrees of liquidity. M1 is the most liquid measure. M0 is the monetary base (Currency in Circulation + Banks’ Reserves with RBI). M3 (also known as Broad Money) is M1 + Time Deposits with the banking system, and is the most commonly used measure of money supply in India.

48. Level of per capita GDP depends upon which of the following? 1. Prop

Level of per capita GDP depends upon which of the following?

  • 1. Proportion of population in the working age
  • 2. Work participation rate
  • 3. Per worker productivity

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

3 only
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2024
D) 1, 2 and 3
– Per capita GDP is calculated as Total GDP divided by the Total Population.
– Total GDP can be expressed as the product of the number of workers and the productivity per worker (GDP / Number of Workers).
– The number of workers is determined by the total population, the proportion of that population that is of working age, and the proportion of the working-age population that is employed or seeking work (work participation rate).
– Mathematically: Per Capita GDP = (GDP / Number of Workers) * (Number of Workers / Working Age Population) * (Working Age Population / Total Population) * (Total Population / Total Population)
– This simplifies to: Per Capita GDP = (Per Worker Productivity) * (Work Participation Rate among working age) * (Proportion of Population in Working Age). (Or variants depending on how WPR is defined, but the dependence is clear).
– Therefore, the level of per capita GDP depends on all three factors:
– Proportion of population in the working age (influences the potential labor force).
– Work participation rate (influences how much of the potential labor force is actually working).
– Per worker productivity (influences how much each worker produces).
– These three factors represent key drivers of economic growth and living standards. An increase in any of these, holding others constant, would generally lead to an increase in per capita GDP.

49. Which of the following components of Central Government taxes on petro

Which of the following components of Central Government taxes on petroleum products is/are not shareable with the States?

  • 1. Basic Excise Duty
  • 2. Additional Excise Duty
  • 3. Special Additional Excise Duty

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3
3 only
2 and 3 only
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2024
D) 2 and 3 only
– Under the constitutional framework (Article 270) and Finance Commission recommendations, certain Union taxes are shareable with states (part of the divisible pool), while others are not (like surcharges and cesses levied for specific purposes).
– Basic Excise Duty (BED), now often termed Union Excise Duty, levied on petroleum products by the Central Government, is typically shareable with the states as part of the divisible pool as per the recommendations of the Finance Commission. Thus, statement 1 is shareable.
– Additional Excise Duty (AED) and Special Additional Excise Duty (SAED) levied by the Central Government on petroleum products fall outside the divisible pool and are not shareable with the states. These often take the form of cesses or surcharges meant for specific purposes (like infrastructure development). Thus, statements 2 and 3 are not shareable.
– States levy their own taxes on petroleum products, primarily Value Added Tax (VAT) or Sales Tax, which are a significant source of revenue for them. The debate about fuel prices often involves the respective shares of the Centre (through excise duties, cesses) and States (through VAT).

50. Which of the following statements with regard to the Report of Tendulk

Which of the following statements with regard to the Report of Tendulkar Committee (2009) on poverty estimates is/are correct?

  • The Committee had used an all-India urban poverty line basket as a reference to derive both rural and urban poverty levels.
  • The Committee had anchored the poverty line to the official food calorie norms.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2024
A) 1 only
– Statement 1 is correct. The Tendulkar Committee (2009) recommended a new method for poverty estimation. It moved away from separate poverty lines for rural and urban areas based on calorie norms. Instead, it used the urban poverty line basket (based on 2004-05 prices and consumption data) as a reference and adjusted it for rural areas using an appropriate price index (Mixed Recall Period based implicit price index). This resulted in a common poverty line basket consumption pattern for both rural and urban areas, though the monetary value of the poverty line differed due to price differences.
– Statement 2 is incorrect. A key recommendation of the Tendulkar Committee was to shift away from anchoring the poverty line solely to the official food calorie norms. While food consumption was still considered, the committee included expenditure on education and health in addition to food, implicitly incorporating non-caloric dimensions of poverty. It specifically rejected the calorie-based anchoring used by previous committees.
– The Tendulkar Committee’s recommendations led to higher poverty estimates compared to the previous Lakdawala Committee method, mainly because it accounted for a wider range of expenses beyond basic food needs anchored to calorie intake.