The correct answer is: $\boxed{\text{D}}$.
A function is differentiable at a point if the limit $\lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(x+h) – f(x)}{h}$ exists. In this case, we have
$$\lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(1+h) – f(1)}{h} = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{e^{1+h} – e}{h} = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{e^h}{h}.$$
The limit $\lim_{h \to 0} \frac{e^h}{h}$ exists and is equal to $e$, so $f(x)$ is differentiable at $x=1$ for all values of $a$ and $b$.
Here is a brief explanation of each option:
- Option A is incorrect because $f(x)$ is differentiable at $x=1$ for some values of $a$ and $b$, such as $a=1$ and $b=0$.
- Option B is incorrect because $f(x)$ is differentiable at $x=1$ for all values of $a$ and $b$.
- Option C is incorrect because $f(x)$ is differentiable at $x=1$ for all values of $a$ and $b$, not just for the unique values of $a$ and $b$ such that $a+b=e$.
- Option D is correct because $f(x)$ is differentiable at $x=1$ for all values of $a$ and $b$.